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dedylja [7]
3 years ago
7

Eleanor is a divorce attorney who practices law in Dallas. She wants to join the American Divorce Lawyers Association (ADLA), a

professional organization for divorce attorneys. The membership dues for the ADLA are $500 per year and must be paid at the beginning of each year. For instance, membership dues for the first year are paid today, and dues for the second year are payable one year from today. However, the ADLA also has an option for members to buy a lifetime membership today for $4,500 and never have to pay annual membership dues. Obviously, the lifetime membership isn’t a good deal if you only remain a member for a couple of years, but if you remain a member for 40 years, it’s a great deal. Suppose that the appropriate annual interest rate is 8.5%. What is the minimum number of years that Eleanor must remain a member of the ADLA so that the lifetime membership is cheaper (on a present value basis) than paying $500 in annual membership dues? (Note: Round your answer up to the nearest year.)
Business
1 answer:
Stels [109]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

15 years

Explanation:

Future value of Lumpsum = PV (1 + i)^n

PV = Present value = $4,500  

i = interest rate = 8.5%

n = no. of compounding period = 15 years

So, FV = 4,500 * (1 + .085)^15

= 4,500 * 3.3997428788

= $15,298.84

When Eleanor choose to pay $500 for annual membership fee:

Future Value of annuity due = (1 + r) * P[((1 + r)n - 1) / r]

where P = Periodic payment = $500

i = interest rate = 8.5%

n = no. of compuding period = 15 years

So, FV of annuity due = (1 + .085) * 500[((1 + .085)^15 - 1) / .085]

= (1.085) * 500[(3.3997428788 - 1) / .085]

= (1.085) * 500 * 28.2322691624

= $15,316.01

So, within 15 years lifetime membership is cheaper than annual membership.

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masha68 [24]

Answer: Advertising seeks to appeal to a mass audience with a uniform message.

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Consolidated Enterprises issues $1 million face value, five-year bonds with a coupon rate of 6.0 percent. At the time of issuanc
valentinak56 [21]

Answer:

$1,035,459.51

Explanation:

First we must determine the issuing value:

  • cash flow 1 = $60,000
  • cash flow 1 = $60,000
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  • cash flow 1 = $60,000
  • cash flow 1 = $1,060,000

using an excel spreadsheet to calculate the bond's price with a discount value of 5%:

the bonds were sold at $1,043,294.77

the effective interest expense = bond's price x market interest = $1,043,294.77  x 5% = $52,164.74

bond's value = bond's price - (coupon payment - effective interest) = $1,043,294.77 - ($60,000 - $52,164.74) = $1,035,459.51

8 0
3 years ago
Select the correct answer from the drop-down menu.
irina [24]

One can display good customer service by having a professional appearance while attending to customers.

<h3>What is customer service?</h3>

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Characteristics of a good customer service are:

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8 0
2 years ago
A friend offers you a ticket to a Chicago Cubs baseball game for $40. You know you can sell the ticket to another friend for $50
olganol [36]

Answer:

$50

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the cost of the next best option forgone when one alternative is chosen over other alternatives.

If I decide to go to the game, I forgot the opportunity of selling the ticket for $50 which is the next best use of the ticket.

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
3 years ago
Lin Corporation has a single product whose selling price is $134 per unit and whose variable expense is $67 per unit. The compan
podryga [215]

Answer:

1. 600 units

2. $81,800

Explanation:

In this question we use the formula of break-even point in unit sales which is shown below:

= (Fixed expenses + target profit) ÷ (Contribution margin per unit)

where,  

Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable expense per unit

= $134 - $67

= $67

And, the other items values would remain the same

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= ($32,300 + $7,900) ÷ ($67)

= ($402,00) ÷ ($67)

= 600 units  

2. Break even point = (Fixed expenses + desired profit) ÷ (Profit volume Ratio)  

And, Profit volume ratio = (Contribution margin per unit) ÷ (selling price per unit) × 100

So, the Profit volume ratio = ($67) ÷ ($134) × 100 = 50%

The other values would remain same

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to  

= ($32,300 + $8,600) ÷ (50%)  

= $81,800

8 0
3 years ago
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