Answer:
a = 4, x = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
The opposite sides of a parallelogram are congruent , then
WX = YZ , that is
a² + 5a = 5a + 16 ( subtract 5a from both sides )
a² = 16 ( take the square root of both sides )
a = ±
= ± 4
Since a > 0 , then a = 4
Also
XY = WZ , that is
x² + 6x = 4x + 3 ( subtract 4x + 3 from both sides )
x² + 2x - 3 = 0 ← in standard form
(x + 3)(x - 1) = 0 ← in factored form
Equate each factor to zero and solve for x
x + 3 = 0 ⇒ x = - 3
x - 1 = 0 ⇒ x = 1
Since x > 0 , then x = 1
6. x=1 , y=2
7. x=-4 , y=5
8. Infinitely Many Solutions
Answer:D.7
Step-by-step explanation:
I believe the correct answer from the choices listed above is option B. The solution to a system of inequalities is <span>a collection of points that satisfy all inequalities in the system. It will always be a number of points that will agree with the inequality.</span>
Hope this answers the question. Have a nice day.