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djyliett [7]
3 years ago
7

When buying a candy bar, there is a 20% chance that it will also include a coupon for a second candy bar. A student

Mathematics
2 answers:
Aleks04 [339]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Solnce55 [7]3 years ago
3 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>
  • To estimate the probability that more than 2 out of 7 candy bars will include a coupon, the student must count the number of trials with more than two 1's. and divide by the number of trials.
  • This gives an estimated probability of about 0.1875.
<h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

1 represent a candy bar with a  coupon and numbers 2 through 5 represent a candy bar without a coupon.

Now we are asked to find the probability that, if she buys 7 candy bars, more than 2 will include a coupon.

Total number of outcomes=16

Number of favorable outcomes(i.e. the outcome which have more than 2 one) = 3

( Since the outcomes are:  2113415 4341112   1455141 )

Hence, the probability is the ratio of Number of favorable outcomes to the total number of outcomes.

i.e.  Probability=\dfrac{3}{16}\\\\\\Probability=0.1875

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Contestants on a game show spin a wheel with 242424 equally-sized segments. Most of those segments show different prize amounts,
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Using the principle of probability, the probability that the outcome of both spins does not land on "<em>bankrupt</em><em>"</em><em> </em>is 1/144

<u>Given</u><u> </u><u>the</u><u> </u><u>Parameters</u><u> </u><u>:</u>

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<u>Second</u><u> </u><u>spin</u><u> </u><u>:</u>

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P(<em>neither</em><em> </em><em>lands</em><em> </em><em>on</em><em> </em><em>bankrupt</em><em>)</em><em> </em><em>=</em><em> </em>1/12 × 1/12 = 1/144

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Learn more : brainly.com/question/18405415

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