Answer:
the 3rd one from top
Step-by-step explanation:
because the coefficient is largest
Answer:
1/26=4/104
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of pulling a diamond if completely shuffled properly, is a 1/4. Because there are 4 suits. This is only if, there are no jokers.
And the probability of pulling a jack, is a 4/51. Because there are 4 jacks out of the 51 cards, but you already pulled out a diamond card, so you take 1 out.
Multiply them together, and you will get 4/104 = 1/26
There is a 1/26 chance of pulling out a diamond card, then a jack.
Your answer is 28.
If the equation is in an absolute value, you do the operation like normal and then take the positive version of the number because an absolute value is just how far on a number line the number is from zero and distance cannot be measure in negative numbers.
Answer:
The first obe
Step-by-step explanation:
