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zaharov [31]
2 years ago
6

Assume that coupon interest payments are made semiannually and that par value is $1,000 for both bonds.

Business
2 answers:
Allushta [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a. Bond A-$903.78  

   Bond B-$732.78  

b.Bond A-$830.62

   Bond B-$581.45  

c.Bond A-($73.16)

 Bond B-($151.33)

 

Explanation:

In calculating the bond values I adopted the present value formula in excel ,which is given below:

=pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is the return on the bond also known as yield to maturity

nper is the time to maturity

pmt is the coupon payment annually which coupon rate multiplied by bond's face value

fv is the amount repayable on upon redemption which is $1000 per bond.

Find detailed calculations in the attached.

Download xlsx
babunello [35]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a.$731,09

b. $578.01

C.-$152.07

Explanation: see attached file

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Valuing Trading Securities at Fair Value On January 1, Valuation Allowance for Trading Investments had a zero balance. On Decemb
Artist 52 [7]

Answer:

Dr. Trading securities                                    $4,800  

Cr. Unrealized gain on trading securities    $4,800

Explanation:

Trading securities are recorded reported on the fair market value. The gain or loss arise from the increase or decrease in the value of trading securities. There is a gain if the price of trading security increases and loss when the price of the trading security decreases. Unrealized gains are reported in the separate section of stockholders equity.

Gain on Trading securities = Fair value of security portfolio - Cost of security portfolio = $46,300 - $41,500 = $4,800  

6 0
3 years ago
If gdp is $20 trillon, how many years will it take for gdp to increase to $40 trillion if annual growth is 10 percent?
ElenaW [278]

It will take 7 years.

Given GDP is $20 trillion and increased GDP is $40 trillion.

Gross domestic product (GDP) is the standard measure of  value added generated by the country's production of goods and services over a certain time period. GDP is the total monetary or market worth of all completed products and services produced within a country's boundaries in a certain time period.

As such, it also accounts for the money generated by such output, as well as the overall amount spent on final products and services (less imports).

Time take to reach $40 trillion is to be found.

Formula to find the time taken to reach $40 trillion  is given below:

F = P *(1+i) ^t

Here,

F = 40,

P = 20,

I = 10%

Now put the values in the formula given above.

F = 0.1040 = 20 × (1+0.10) ^t(1.10)^t

  = 40 / 20

  = 2

Taking log both sides t = log 2 / log 1.10  

                                    = 7.27 yrs or 7 yrs

Therefore, it will take 7 years.

To know more about GDP click here:

brainly.com/question/1383956

#SPJ4

8 0
1 year ago
Alcohol is most effective when used as a __________ solution. 25% 60% 70% 95% 100%
Marta_Voda [28]
Alcohol is most effective when used as a 70% solution.
8 0
3 years ago
Bernice’s has $823,000 in sales. The profit margin is 4.2 percent and the firm has 7,500 shares of stock outstanding. The market
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

a. 3.58

Explanation:

the price earning ratio is obtain with the following formula:

\frac{Market \: Price}{EPS}

We are given with the market price, now we need to solve for the EPS

with sales and profit margin we solve for net income. then we divide by the shares outstanding to get the EPS

823,000 sales x 4.2 profit margin = 34.566‬ net income

now we solve for EPS Earning per share:

\frac{Income}{Shares}\\\frac{34,566}{7,500} = 4.6088‬

Now we can sovle for price-earnings ratio

\frac{Market \: Price}{EPS}

16.50/4.61 = 3,5791 = 3.58

8 0
2 years ago
In the aggregate expenditures model if aggregate expenditures equal 800 billion and real GDP equals 600 there is a______________
Llana [10]

Answer:

unplanned inventory accumulation equals -$200 billion.

Explanation:

As we know that

Unplanned inventory equals to

= Real GDP - aggregate expenditures

= 600 billion - 800 billion

= -$200 billion

It shows a difference between the real GDP and the aggregate expenditure

Since the real GDP is less than the aggregate expenditure, so the unplanned inventory should come in negative amount else it comes in a positive amount

4 0
3 years ago
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