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Usimov [2.4K]
2 years ago
6

You expect KT industries​ (KTI) will have earnings per share of $ 6 this year and expect that they will pay out $ 2.25 of these

earnings to shareholders in the form of a dividend. ​ KTI's return on new investments is 13​% and their equity cost of capital is 15​%. The value of a share of​ KTI's stock is closest​ to:
Business
1 answer:
snow_lady [41]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Value of a share = $15

Explanation:

<em>According to the </em><u><em>dividend valuation model</em></u><em>, the value of a share is the present value of expected dividend discounted at the required rate of return. </em>

This model is expressed in the formula below;

Value of a share = D/Ke

D- dividend payable in year one

Ke- cost of equity

Value of a share = 2.25/0.15

Value of a share = $15

Value of a share = $15

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At the end of a full year mary garber had $6248.95 in her saving account. If the rate of interest was 12.253%, how much money di
allochka39001 [22]

Answer:

$5,566.84

Explanation:

to determine the amount of money that Mary had in her account at the beginning of the year we can use the resent value formula:

present value (PV) = future value (FV) / (1 + interest rate)ⁿ

where:

  • FV = $6,248.95
  • interest rate = 12.253%
  • n = 1

PV = $6,248.95 / (1 + 12.253%) = $6,248.95 / 1.12253 = $5,566.84

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the USA can make 15,000,000 cars or 20,000,000 bottles of wine with one year's worth of labor. France can make 10,0
Artemon [7]

Answer: The answer is as follows:

Explanation:

From these numbers, we can conclude that USA has a comparative in producing cars and France has a comparative advantage in producing bottles.

Opportunity cost shows that how many units of one good have to be foregone in order to produce one additional unit of other good.

In USA:

Opportunity cost of producing bottles = \frac{15000000}{20000000}

= 0.75

Opportunity cost of producing cars = \frac{20000000}{15000000}

= 1.33

In France:

Opportunity cost of producing bottles = \frac{10000000}{18000000}

= 0.55

Opportunity cost of producing cars = \frac{18000000}{10000000}

= 1.8

Above calculations clearly shows that USA has a lower opportunity in producing 1 unit of car as compared to the France, so it has a comparative advantage in producing cars.

Whereas, France has a lower opportunity in producing 1 unit of bottle as compared to the USA, so it has a comparative advantage in producing Bottles.

5 0
3 years ago
The financial statements of a company are the primary sources of information that enable us to communicate the financial results
maks197457 [2]

Answer: both internally and externally

                     

Explanation: In simple words, financial statements refers to the group of reports and statements that are prepared by an organisation for communication its financial performance and postilion to its internal and external stakeholders.

It constitutes balance sheet, cash flow statement and income statement etc.

4 0
2 years ago
You want to save $98,000 to buy an boat by making an equal, end of year payment into a brokerage account for the next 9 years. I
malfutka [58]

Answer:

Annual deposit= $7,930.11

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

FV= $98,000

n= 9 years

i= 0.0775

<u>To calculate the annual deposit, we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

Isolating A:

A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}

A= (98,000*0.0775) / [(1.0775^9) - 1]

A= $7,930.11

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Osborn Manufacturing uses a predetermined overhead rate of 18.20 per direct labor-hour. This predetermined rate was based on 12,
Leto [7]

The correct statement is that the under applied overheads for Osborn Manufacturing Company is calculates as a negative balance of $5700 at the overhead rate of $18.20.

Explanation:

The calculation of the overhead costs is done by using the formula for under applied overheads and calculating the required values from such given information.

Calculation of manufacturing overheads

The formula for the calculation of manufacturing overheads whether under applied or over applied can be determined is as below,

Under - applied Overheads = Applied Overhead - Actual overhead

However, to calculate further the actual overheads can be calculated as below by applying the given values to the formula,

Applied Overheads = Actual Level of Direct labour hours x overhead rate hours

Applied Overheads = 11500 x 18.20

Applied Overheads = $209300

Now applying the values to the formula, we get,

Under - applied Overheads=209300 - 215000

Under - applied Overheads = -$5700

Hence, the correct statement is that under applied overheads for Osborn Manufacturing Company is calculated as a negative balance of $5700 at the overhead rate of $18.20.

Learn more about manufacturing overheads here:  

brainly.com/question/13214087

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
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