Answer:
An increase in Price and decrease in Quantity.
Explanation:
Please see the attached Decrease in Supply when Demand is Constant Diagram for further explanation:
<em>Supply Curve </em>is always upward because Supply and Price are directly proportional as shown in attached diagram as S
.
<em>Demand Curve</em> is always downward because Demand and Price are inversely proportional as shown in attached diagram as D
.
The point where Demand Curve and Supply curves meet each other or intersect each other is called <em>Equilibrium </em>as shown in the attached diagram as E. At this the point Quantity Demanded and Quantity Supplied are equal.
The point at which Equilibrium touches the price is called Equilibrium Price as shown in the attached Diagram as P. At this point the Quantity Demanded and Quantity Supplied are equal.
The Point at which Equilibrium touches the quantity is called <em>Equilibrium Quantity</em> as shown in the attached Diagram as Q. At this point the Quantity Demanded and Quantity Supplied are equal.
Since the Demand is constant D and Supply is decreasing, So when the Supply decreases it shifts towards its left side as shown in the attached diagram as S'.
After decrease in Supply the changes it brings a new Equilibrium point as E' at which Equilibrium Price rises to P' and Equilibrium Quantity falls to Q' as shown in the attached diagram. At this point the Quantity Demanded and Quantity Supplied are equal.
Answer:
Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
Expected cash flow in year 1 : C1 = (0.5 × 90,000) + (0.5 × 117,000)
= 103,500
Discount rate, r = Project's WACC = 15%
Hence, Value of the project today = Vp = C1 ÷ (1 + r)
= 103,500 ÷ (1 + 15%)
= $90,000
Value of equity today : Ve0 = Vp - Debt
= 90,000 - 60,000
= 30,000
Value of equity in year 1 = Project cash flows - Debt × (1 + interest rate)
Weak economy = 90,000 - 60,000 × (1 + 5%)
= 27,000
Strong economy = 117,000 - 60,000 × (1 + 5%)
= 54,000
Expected value of equity in year 1 : Ve1 = (0.5 × 27,000) + (0.5 × 54,000)
= 40,500
Hence, Levered cost of equity, Ke = (Ve1 ÷ Ve0) - 1
= (40,500 ÷ 30,000
) - 1
= 35%
A firm maximizes its profitability when it<u> "configures its internal operations to support the position selected by it on the efficiency frontier".</u>
In economics, profit maximization is the short run or long run process by which a firm may decide the value, information, and yield levels that prompt the best benefit.
The general guideline is that the firm maximizes profit by delivering that amount of yield where negligible income breaks even with peripheral expense. The profit maximization issue can likewise be drawn closer from the information side.
Answer:
$1,876
Explanation:
The computation of the amount of the interest expense is shown below:-
Year Annual Interest Principal Outstanding
Payments Amount 9% Amount
0 $30,000
1 $11,852 $30,000 × 9% $11,852 - $2,700 $30,000 - $9,152
$2700 $9,152 $20,848
2 $11,852 $20,848 × 9% $11,852 - $1,876 $30,000 - $9,976
$1,876 $9,976 $20,024
Answer:
The answer is 'sell future contracts on yen
Explanation:
Futures contract is a form of derivative that is standardized. It occurs through the exchange rather than over the counter. It is safe from default or counterparty risk because the clearing house guarantees any loss.
Futures contract obligates the parties involved to either buy or sell the underlying security.
Because Mondo corporation is expecting some of its exports in yen and it is afraid of fall in exchange of yen relative to US dollar, to hedge the risk, it must sell future contracts on yen.