Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The distance from one score to another tends to increase, and a single score tends to provide a less accurate representation of the entire distribution.
Consider normal distribution it has increasing trend from -Inf to the mean. But has no probability at any point. But if you consider binomial distribution then you will get the information at any integer of its range, but not all values of real line. That is you will not have information on (0,1) so there you cannot comment for increment of that distribution.
Answer: 56
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: $998.67
Step-by-step explanation:
M = P[r(1+r)^n/((1+r)^n)-1)]
This does not include taxes, insurance, or PMI
Answer:B
Step-by-step explanation: i got a 100
Assuming you are multiplying 5 times 2/11 then you just put 5/1 because anything divided by 1 is still one, and then multiply 5/1 by 2/11. Meaning, 5 times 2 is 10. And 1 times 11 is 11. So it would be 2/11. You multiply the numerators(top number) and denominators(bottom number). 2/11 is already simplified