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Lapatulllka [165]
3 years ago
7

A semiconductor manufacturing company employs 1,000 people. The average weekly salary of each employee is $750.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Novay_Z [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Graph A is the correct choice.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the number of weeks.

We have been given that a  semiconductor manufacturing company employs 1,000 people. The average weekly salary of each employee is $750.

Let us find the weekly salary for 1000 employees by multiplying 1000 by $750.

\text{The weekly salary for 1,000 employees}=1,000\times \$750

\text{The weekly salary for 1,000 employees}=\$750,000

Let us find amount of salaries after 52 weeks as 1 year equals 52 weeks.

\text{The amount of salaries after 52 weeks for 1,000 employees}=52*\$750,000

\text{The amount of salaries after 52 weeks for 1,000 employees}=\$39000000  

Since at week 0, the salaries for 1000 employees will be also 0, so point (0,0) will be on the line of our graph.

Now let see which of our given graphs has point (0,0) and (52,39000000).

We can see that graph A has y-value 39 million on x equals 52, therefore, Graph A is the correct choice.

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Irina-Kira [14]

<h2><u>PLEASE MARK BRAINLIEST!</u></h2>

Answer:

The best answer is 12.4 units.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is because, when I totaled all of the side lengths, I got an estimated result of 12 units. 12.4 is the next closest answer, so your answer is 12.4

I hope this helps!

- sincerelynini

6 0
3 years ago
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Please help it would mean a lot to me
artcher [175]
I believe it’s D not sure though I’m sorry
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2 years ago
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A particle moves on a circle through points which been marked 0,1,2,3,4 (in a clockwise order). At each step it has a probabilit
Sedaia [141]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given data:

SS={0,1,2,3,4}

Let probability of moving to the right be = P

Then probability of moving to the left is =1-P

The transition probability matrix is:

\left[\begin{array}{ccccc}1&P&0&0&0\\1-P&1&P&0&0\\0&1-P&1&P&0\\0&0&1-P&1&P\\0&0&0&1-P&1\end{array}\right]

Calculating the limiting probabilities:

π0=π0+Pπ1                 eq(1)

π1=(1-P)π0+π1+Pπ2     eq(2)

π2=(1-P)π1+π2+Pπ3    eq(3)

π3=(1-P)π2+π3+Pπ4    eq(4)

π4=(1-P)π3+π4             eq(5)

π0+π1+π2+π3+π4=1

π0-π0-Pπ1=0

→π1 = 0

substituting value of π1  in eq(2)

(1-P)π0+Pπ2=0

from

π2=(1-P)π1+π2+Pπ3  

we get

(1-P)π1+Pπ3 = 0

from

π3=(1-P)π2+π3+Pπ4

we get

(1-P)π2+Pπ4 =0

from π4=(1-P)π3+π4  

→π3=0

substituting values of π1 and π3 in eq(3)

→π2=0

Now

π0+π1+π2+π3+π4=0

π0+π4=1

π0=0.5

π4=0.5

So limiting probabilities are {0.5,0,0,0,0.5}

4 0
3 years ago
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arlik [135]

Answer:

A is a correct answer i think

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4 years ago
Willing to brainlist solve 16-17 please during this exam
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

16. B

17. B

Step-by-step explanation:

16. The intercept form of the parabola is

y=a(x-x_1)(x-x_2),

where x_1, x_2 are two x-intercepts.

In your case,

x_1=2\\ \\x_2=-8

so

y=a(x-2)(x-(-8))\\ \\y=a(x-2)(x+8)

To find <em>a</em>, substitute coordinates of the point (-6,-4) parabola is passing through

-4=a(-6-2)(-6+8)\\ \\-4=-16a\\ \\a=\dfrac{1}{4}

and

y=\dfrac{1}{4}(x-2)(x+8)

17. The vertex form of the parabola equation is

-2p(y-k)=(x-h)^2,

where <em>(h,k)</em> are the coordinates of the vertex and sign "-" because parabola goes down.

In your case, vertex is (2,3), so

-2p(y-3)=(x-2)^2

The vertex is 3 units from the focus, then

\dfrac{p}{2}=3\\ \\p=6

The equation of the parabola is

-2\cdot 6(y-3)=(x-2)^2\\ \\y=-\dfrac{1}{12}(x-3)^2+3

8 0
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