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exis [7]
3 years ago
12

A company completes 21,000 units this month and has ending goods in process inventory of 3,000 units which are estimated to be 4

0% complete. Direct materials cost per EUP is $5.00 and Conversion cost per EUP is $1.50.
The cost transferred to the Finished Goods Inventory is $______.
Business
1 answer:
kolezko [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Total cost of transferred to finished goods inventory  = $ 136,500

Explanation:

To value cost of transferred finished goods, we multiply the cost per equivalent unit of production (cost per EUP) by the the number of equivalent units (EUP) for each of the cost element.

So the value of the finished inventory, is determined as follows:

Value of inventory = cost per E.U.P × number of E.U.P

Direct Material = $5.00 × 21,000 =$ 105,000

Conversion cost = $1.50 × 21,000= $31,500

Total cost of transferred to finished goods inventory =

$ 105,000 + $31,500

= $ 136,500

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Answer: Option (d) is correct

Explanation:

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8 0
2 years ago
Examine the scenarios to determine the protected status, unprotected status, existence, or non-existence of a trade secret.
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

Protected status

Explanation:

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Thus, from the above we can conclude that the given scenario indicates protected status.

6 0
2 years ago
Overapplied manufacturing overhead would result if:
Ksivusya [100]
<span> Manufacturing overhead describes the difference between manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process and manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period.</span>
Over-applied manufacturing overhead would result if the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is more than the manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period. So, in over-applied overhead the applied overhead is bigger than the actual overhead. 
4 0
3 years ago
A phenotypically non-bald woman and a bald man produce four bald sons and a non-bald daughter. What are the most likely genotype
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

b. bb and BB

Explanation:

For example, pattern of baldness is dominant in man and recessive in female. This is because the gene for baldness (B) in heterozygous state (Bb) expresses itself in male but not in female. It means gene B for baldness behaves as a dominant in male and as a recessive in female. In man due to influence of male sex hormone, a single gene for this trait can cause loss of hair.

But in woman (due to the absence of the male sex hormone) two genes are required to produce baldness.

BB or Bb = Bald in males

bb = not bald in male

BB = Bald in females

Bb or bb = not bald in females

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                       XB                                              BY

Xb     XX; Bb (non-bald daughter)          XY; Bb (bald son)

8 0
3 years ago
What does employable mean?
tester [92]

Answer:

Employable: suitable for paid work.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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