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exis [7]
3 years ago
12

A company completes 21,000 units this month and has ending goods in process inventory of 3,000 units which are estimated to be 4

0% complete. Direct materials cost per EUP is $5.00 and Conversion cost per EUP is $1.50.
The cost transferred to the Finished Goods Inventory is $______.
Business
1 answer:
kolezko [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Total cost of transferred to finished goods inventory  = $ 136,500

Explanation:

To value cost of transferred finished goods, we multiply the cost per equivalent unit of production (cost per EUP) by the the number of equivalent units (EUP) for each of the cost element.

So the value of the finished inventory, is determined as follows:

Value of inventory = cost per E.U.P × number of E.U.P

Direct Material = $5.00 × 21,000 =$ 105,000

Conversion cost = $1.50 × 21,000= $31,500

Total cost of transferred to finished goods inventory =

$ 105,000 + $31,500

= $ 136,500

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Materials used by Square Yard Products Inc. in producing Division 3's product are currently purchased from outside suppliers at
BabaBlast [244]

Answer:

(1) option (d) $72,000 (2) option (a)$8,000 (3) option (c)$80,000

Explanation:

Solution

Given:

Now,

(1) The total cost to be paid to the supplier outside is given below:

= 40,000 units x $5 per unit

= $200,000

The price of transfer to be paid to Division 6 is given as:

= 40,000 units x $3.20 per = $128,000

Therefore, the increase in income from operations for Division C is  = $200,000 - $128,000  = = $72,000

(2) The income increase from operations is defined below:

Additional Sales x Contribution Per Unit

Thus,

The per unit contribution = Transfer Price – Variable Cost

= $3.20 - $3 = $0.20 per unit

Hence,

The income increase from operations for Division 6  is given as:

= 40,000 units x $0.20 per unit = $8,000  

(3) Now,

The Increase of Income from operations for Division C  and the Increase in income from operations for Division 6  becomes,

= $72,000 + $8000 = $80,000

3 0
3 years ago
The spot rate for the Argentine peso is $0.3600 per peso. Over the year, inflation in Argentina is 10 percent and U.S. inflation
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

The exchange rate should be approximately <u>0.340364</u> dollars per peso.

Explanation:

Spot rate = 1 Argentina Peso = $0.3600

Inflation in Argentina = 10 %

U.S. inflation = 4 %

Hence Expected rate =

1Peso (1.10) = $0.3600(1.04)  

Hence

1 Peso = $0.3600(1.04) / 1.10

1 Peso = 0.340364

7 0
3 years ago
Watson Oil recently reported (in millions) $8,250 of sales, $5,750 of operating costs other than depreciation, and $1,000 of dep
klemol [59]

Answer:

net income exceeded the free cash flows by $550 million

Explanation:

net income = ($8,250 - $5,750 - $1,000 - $160) x (1 - 35%) = $871 million

net cash flows:

operating activities = $871 + $1,000 - $300 = $1,571

investing activities = ($1,250)

net cash increase during the year = $321 million

net income exceeded the free cash flows by $871 - $321 = $550 million

7 0
3 years ago
QUESTION 15 One of the benefits of downsizing is: higher customer satisfaction. improved efficiency. a more loyal and productive
agasfer [191]
Improved efficiency.

A study shows that downsizing lowered customer satisfaction -
Another study shows that downsizing increased efficiency, but nothing of employee productivity.
5 0
2 years ago
There are two machines for sale that you are considering purchasing for your sawmill to produce hardwood flooring. You want to f
vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

1. The Cpk of machine 1 would be 0.952

2. The Cpk of machine 2 would be 1.111

3.  I would buy machine 2, because the Cpk value is more than 1.

4. The Cpk would be 2.222

Explanation:

1. In order to calculate the Cpk of machine 1 we would have to use to following formula:

Process capability index: Cpk= Min [(mean-L spec)/3sd; (U spec-mean)/3sd]

According to given data:

In machine 1, mean= 48mm

L spec= 46

U spec= 50

Standard deviation sd= 0.7

Therefore, Cpk of machine 1= [0.952;0.952]= 0.952

1. In order to calculate the Cpk of machine 2 we would have to use to following formula:

Process capability index: Cpk= Min [(mean-L spec)/3sd; (U spec-mean)/3sd]

According to given data:

In machine 2, mean= 47

L spec= 46

U spec= 50

Standard deviation sd= 0.3

Therefore, Cpk of machine 2= [1.111;3.333]= 1.111

3. If my goal is to be capable, I would buy machine 2, because the Cpk value is more than 1.

4. If you combine the best of both machines to calculate the cpk we to make the following calculation:

Combination specification, mean= 48 and L spec= 46 and U spec= 50, Standard deviation sd= 0.3

Therefore, Cpk= [2.222;2.222]= 2.222

5 0
3 years ago
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