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Flauer [41]
3 years ago
9

An insurance company estimates its objective risk for 10,000 exposures to be 10 percent. Assuming the probability of loss remain

s the same, what would happen to the objective risk if the number of exposures were to increase to 1 million? A) It would decrease to 1 percent. B) It would decrease to 5 percent. C) It would remain the same. D) It would increase to 20 percent.
Business
1 answer:
vichka [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A) It would decrease to 1 percent.

Explanation:

Given that:

Objective risk for 10,000 exposures = 10%

The objective risk could be explained to mean the actual loss incurred within a given period. The objective risk also decreases as the sample increases, in this case as the number of exposure increases, the exposure risk decreases.

In th question above, with an exposure value of 10,000; objective risk is 10%

When the exposure increases to 1,000,000

(10,000 / 1,000,000) * 100%

0.01 * 100%

= 1%

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Why are only final goods and services included in the calculation of GDP?
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Answer:

Only final goods and services are included in the calculation of GDP to avoid counting things multiple times.

Explanation:

In the calculation of the GDP only final goods and services are included because the prices of the these already have the costs of all the things that were used to produce them. If we count the intermediate products and services that were used for the final output, we will be double counting which will give a result that is not a correct estimation.

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3 years ago
What is the square root of 5
vekshin1
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3. What is meant by economy of scale? Why would costs be im pacted by the quantity of garment that is produced?
Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

Economies of Scale refer to the cost advantage experienced by a firm when it increases its level of output. The advantage arises due to the inverse relationship between per-unit fixed cost and the quantity produced. The greater the quantity of output produced, the lower the per-unit fixed cost.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
An investment of $6,000 produces a net annual cash inflow of $2,000 for each of 5 years. What is the payback period? a.2 years b
mestny [16]

Answer:

3 years

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I hope my answer helps you

4 0
3 years ago
a company produces a single product. variable production costs are $14.00 per unit and variable selling and administrative expen
My name is Ann [436]

The value of the ending inventory under variable costing is calculated to be $19,600.

To determine the value of the ending inventory under variable costing we first find out the units in the ending inventory as follows;

Units in ending inventory = Units in beginning inventory + Produced units − Sold units

Units in ending inventory = 0 + 6000 - 4600

Units in ending inventory = 1400

Now the value of the ending inventory under variable costing can be determined by multiplying units in the ending inventory by the variable  production cost as follows;

Value of Ending inventory = Unit in ending inventory × Variable production cost

Value of Ending inventory = 1400 × 14

Value of Ending inventory = $19,600

Hence, the value of the ending inventory would be $19,600 under variable costing.

To learn more about ending inventory; click here:

brainly.com/question/19132743

#SPJ4

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