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Elza [17]
3 years ago
15

Can someone please help me? Why are subordinate bonds and preferred stock more risky than long-term senior bonds?

Business
2 answers:
MA_775_DIABLO [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Subordinated bonds, also known as subordinated debts, is an unsecured loan or bond that ranks below other, more senior loans or securities with the respect to claims on assets or earnings. Generally, subordinated bonds are debts that can be added to preferred stocks. Preferred stocks can be viewed as long- term investments, but are generally more risky because they are more sensitive to interest- rate risk if the rates rise. If they rise, then the price of the preferred stocks may fall and can fall lower than the price of short- term bonds. The difference between subordinated bonds and senior bonds is the priority in which the debt claims are paid. If one has to file bankruptcy or face liquidation, senior debts is paid back before the subordinate debt. Once the senior debt is completely paid back, then the subordinate debt starts being repaid.

Explanation:

Black_prince [1.1K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

This is because subordinated debts are only repayable after the other debts have been paid off. theses are the more risky ones for the lender of the money. Subordinated loans usually have a lower credit rating. Therefore, a higher yield than senior debt.

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7 0
3 years ago
During the first year of operations, employees earned vacation pay of $35,000. The vacations will be taken during the second yea
insens350 [35]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

In the given question it is mentioned that the employees earned vacation pay of $35,000 during the first year of the operation.

Hence,

the expenses should be recorded as the vacation pay expenses in the same year not in the following year i.e the second year whether the employees take the vacation in the same year or the next year.

6 0
2 years ago
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Prepare the adjusting entry to record bad debts expense assuming uncollectibles are estimated to be (1) 3% of credit sales, (2)
Genrish500 [490]

Answer:

1.

Date                   Account Title                                             Debit          Credit

Dec. 31             Bad debt expense                                    $9,000

                        Allowance for doubtful accounts                                 $9,000

Working

= 3% * 300,000

= $9,000

2.

Date                   Account Title                                             Debit          Credit

Dec. 31             Bad debt expense                                    $12,000

                        Allowance for doubtful accounts                              $12,000

Working

= 1% * total debt

= 1% * (900,000 + 300,000)

= $12,000

3.

Date                   Account Title                                             Debit          Credit

Dec. 31             Bad debt expense                                    $12,500

                        Allowance for doubtful accounts                              $12,500

Working

= 6% * Accounts receivable

= 6% * 125,000

= $7,500

As the Allowance account is in debit, it means that bad debt exceeded the allowance so this balance needs to be added to properly cater for bad debts.

= 7,500 + 5,000

= $12,500

8 0
3 years ago
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xeze [42]

Answer:

The classification is shown below:

Explanation:

As we already know that

Cash receipts is the amount which is received by the company in cash that results in increment in cash balance. It is a cash inflow

While the cash payment is the amount which has to be paid by the company in cash that results in decrements in cash balance. It is a cash outflow

So based on this, the categorization is presented below:

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Purchased 4,000 shares of $30 par common stock as treasury stock at $60 per share. = Cash payment for $240,000 (4,000 shares × $60)

Paid dividends of $1.90 per share There were 19,000 shares issued and 3,000 shares of treasury stock.  = Cash payment for $304,00 (19,000 shares - 3,000 shares) × $1.90

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Answer:

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hope this helps

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