Answer:
36
Step-by-step explanation:
you just add all of the numbers together
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
all you have to do is divide each number by 4, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49 ,and 50 until you get a remainder of 1. what I mean is do 2 divided by all the number from 40 50 and do the same with 4,5,8 and 10 until you find one of them that has a remainder of 1. (is a lot of work sorry could't tell you the anwer)
I feel like it might be the second one
Answer:
3
Step-by-step explanation:
f^-1 (-3)
-1 times 3
And so the solution is 3
Hope this helps! :)