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makkiz [27]
4 years ago
8

Is 0.3 equal to 1/3, or 3/10?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Stolb23 [73]4 years ago
8 0

Answer: 3/10

3/10 = 0.3


xenn [34]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

It is equal to 3/10.


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Examine the following graph of y=1/4x+2.
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The slope-intercept form is y = m x + b , where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept. y = m x + b Find the values of m and b using the form y = m x + b . m = 1/4 b = 2 The slope of the line is the value of m , and the y-intercept is the value of b . Slope: 1/4 y-intercept: 2 Any line can be graphed using two points. Select two x values, and plug them into the equation to find the corresponding y values. Choose 0 to substitute in for x to find the ordered pair. y = 2 Choose 1 to substitute in for x to find the ordered pair. Tap for fewer steps... Replace the variable x with 1 in the expression. f ( 1 ) = 1 4 + 2 Simplify the result. The y value at x = 1 is 9/4 . y = 9/4

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<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%20%5Cdisplaystyle%20%5Cint%20%5Climits_%7B0%7D%5E%7B%20%5Cfrac%7B%20%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%
murzikaleks [220]

Let x = \arcsin(y), so that

\sin(x) = y

\tan(x)=\dfrac y{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

dx = \dfrac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

Then the integral transforms to

\displaystyle \int_{x=0}^{x=\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \int_{y=\sin(0)}^{y=\sin\left(\frac\pi2\right)} \frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}} \ln(y) \frac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

\displaystyle \int_{x=0}^{x=\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy

Integrate by parts, taking

u = \ln(y) \implies du = \dfrac{dy}y

dv = \dfrac{y}{1-y^2} \, dy \implies v = -\dfrac12 \ln|1-y^2|

For 0 < y < 1, we have |1 - y²| = 1 - y², so

\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy = uv \bigg|_{y\to0^+}^{y\to1^-} + \frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-y^2)}{y} \, dy

It's easy to show that uv approaches 0 as y approaches either 0 or 1, so we just have

\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy = \frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-y^2)}{y} \, dy

Recall the Taylor series for ln(1 + y),

\displaystyle \ln(1+y) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n y^n

Replacing y with -y² gives the Taylor series

\displaystyle \ln(1-y^2) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n (-y^2)^n = - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n y^{2n}

and replacing ln(1 - y²) in the integral with its series representation gives

\displaystyle -\frac12 \int_0^1 \frac1y \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n}}n \, dy = -\frac12 \int_0^1 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n-1}}n \, dy

Interchanging the integral and sum (see Fubini's theorem) gives

\displaystyle -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n \int_0^1 y^{2n-1} \, dy

Compute the integral:

\displaystyle -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n \int_0^1 y^{2n-1} \, dy = -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n}}{2n^2} \bigg|_0^1 = -\frac14 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2}

and we recognize the famous sum (see Basel's problem),

\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}6

So, the value of our integral is

\displaystyle \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \boxed{-\frac{\pi^2}{24}}

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