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Maksim231197 [3]
3 years ago
8

Giselle wants to buy a condo that has a purchase price of $163,000. Giselle earns $2,986 a month and wants to spend no more than

25% of her income on her mortgage payment. She has saved up $33,000 for a down payment. Giselle is considering the following loan option: 20% down, 30 year at a fixed rate of 6.25%. What modification can be made to this loan to make it a viable option, given Giselle’s situation?
Business
1 answer:
galina1969 [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<u>Giselle should purchase points</u> to lower the interest rate of the mortage, this will make the cuota decrease.

Explanation:

163000 x20% = 32,600

163,000 - 32,600 = 130,040

current mortgage cuota:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C \times \frac{1-(1+0.0625/12)^{-30*12} }{0.0625/12} = 130,040\\

C= 800.68

800.68/ 2,986 = 0.2681 = 26.81%

this cuota exeeds the desired amount Giselle wants.

her couta can be as much as 2,986 x 25% = 746.5

<u>Giselle should purchase points</u> to lower the interest rate of the mortage, this will make the cuota decrease.

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Classification shifting by managers leads to under-reporting of total expenses and over-statement of bottom-line net income.
Step2247 [10]

Answer: False

Explanation:

Classification shifting is a method used whereby the core earnings are manipulated by misclassifying the items in the income statement.

One way that managers make use of classification shifting is by reporting the operating expenses for the business as nonoperating expenses. This is usually done in order to inflate the operating income.

The statement in the question is false as classification shifting by managers doesn't lead to under-reporting of total expenses and over-statement of bottom-line net income rather it lead to over reporting.

4 0
2 years ago
Haulsee Inc. pays no dividend currently but is expected to start paying a small dividend next year. The 5-year-old firm has a be
wlad13 [49]

Answer:

17.10%

Explanation:

The computation of the cost of equity is shown below:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

= 6.10% + 1.25 × 8.8%

= 6.10% + 11%

= 17.10%

The  (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)  is also known as market risk premium and the same is applied.

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

8 0
3 years ago
Holding all other things constant, if ramen noodles are an inferior good to Vanessa, then as her income increases, her demand cu
marishachu [46]

Answer:

:A) will shift left.

Explanation:

An inferior good is a good whose demand falls when income increases and demand increases when income decreases.

As Vanessas income increases, her demand for ramen noodles would fall. This would lead to a decrease in demand for ramen noodles and her demand curve would shift to the left.

I hope my answer helps you

6 0
3 years ago
On October 1, Company B records 1 year of prepaid rent in an income statement account then adjusts for the unexpired prepaid ren
trasher [3.6K]

Answer:

The first journal entry was not the most appropriate, but since the mistake was correctly adjusted at the end of the year, both assets and expenses will be the same whether they did it correctly the first time or they had to adjust a mistake at the end of the year.

E.g. something like this happened

October 1, rent expense for 1 year

Dr Rent expense 12,000

    Cr Cash 12,000

December 31, adjustment to rent expense

Dr Prepaid rent 10,000

    Cr Rent expense 10,000

they should have recorded it as:

October 1, prepaid rent for 1 year

Dr Prepaid rent 12,000

    Cr Cash 12,000

December 31, adjustment to rent expense

Dr Rent expense 2,000

    Cr Prepaid rent 2,000

Whichever way you recorded the transactions, the balances a the end of the year would be:

prepaid rent (asset) $10,000

rent expense (expense) $2,000

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following would NOT be classified as a current asset on a classified balance sheet? 答案选项组 Intangible assets Short-t
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

Intangible assets

Explanation:

A classified balance sheet is a financial statement that classifies the components in the balance sheet into different groups. For example, assets are classified into current or non current asset

Current assets are all the assets that are either used by a company or sold in the course of the year of the company.

Current assets include

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Intangible assets are classified as  noncurrent (long-term) assets

5 0
2 years ago
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