Based on the statement above their need to separate the employee first because there is an employee get bonus and dont. so the correct order of steps to determine the significant result are: c. B,E,D,C,A
hope this help
Answer:
1)
direct materials price variance = actual quantity x (actual price - standard price)
direct materials price variance = 7,820 x ($5.30 - $15) = 7,820 x (-$9.70) = -$75,854 favorable
direct materials usage variance = standard price x (actual usage - standard usage)
direct materials usage variance = $15 x (7,820 - 9,660) = -$27,600 favorable
2)
direct labor price variance = actual hours x (actual rate - standard rate)
direct labor price variance = 2,460 x ($12.30 - $15) = 2,460 x (-$2.70) = -$6,642 favorable
direct labor usage (efficiency) variance = standard rate x (actual hours - standard hours)
direct labor usage (efficiency) variance = $15 x (2,460 - 3,680) = $15 x (-1,220) = -$18,300 favorable
Answer:
The cash award will be equal;l to $444422.01
Explanation:
We have given amount invested P = $440000
Rate of interest r = 8.3%
Time t = 1 year
As the amount is compounded on daily basis
We know that 1 year = 365 days
So rate of interest
%
Time period n = 365
We know that final amount is equal to ![A=P(1+\frac{r}{100})^n](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=A%3DP%281%2B%5Cfrac%7Br%7D%7B100%7D%29%5En)
So
$
So the cash award will be equal;l to $444422.01
Answer:
Price lowers and becomes negative or -5.37 dollars
Explanation:
Market risk premium's formula could be written as dividends/price + dividend's growth rate. Therefore, we dividend growth rate according to the current price and dividend level equal to market risk premium - dividends/price or 0.15 - 1/15.43 = 0.086 or 8.6%. If the dividend growth rate rises by 25% than new one is 33.6%. Price is equal to dividends/market risk premium - dividend growth rate or in this case 1/0.15-0.336 or 1/-0.186 or -5.37 dollars. If the price is negative that would mean that any future selling of the stock would mean that ABC would have to pay in order to sell it.
Answer:
The male frog would join the female frog in the water poodle
Explanation:
Mathematically,
Let x = temperature the 10000 joules from sun Ray would raise the temperature of the copper
So therefore:
10000 = m * (x - 33°) * Spc
Where m = mass of copper = 400g
Spc = specific heat capacity of copper = 0.387j/g/°c
So
400 * ( x - 33) * 0.387 = 10000
( x - 33 ) = 10000/ (400 * 0 387)
x = 97.6 °c
Temp for water where m = mass of water = 100g
x¹ = temperature the sun Ray of 10000 joules would raise the temp of water too.
Spw = specific heat capacity of water = 4.184j/g/°c
So therefore;
100 * ( x¹ - 33 ) * 4.184 = 10000joules
x¹ - 33 = 10000/ (100 * 4.184)
x¹ = 56.9°c
Since x for the male frog is greater than x¹ for the female frog, the male frog would be more uncomfortable because it's environmental temp is far higher than the comfort zone tem which is 20° to 40°c so it would move to join the female frog.