Answer:
a) Ф = 0
b) P_avg=2*P_avg,1
Explanation:
<u>Givens:</u>
The phase difference is 0, 0.2λ, or 0.5λ between the waves.
<u>Part a: </u>
since the amplitude of the wave is directly proportional to the average rate so that the waves will transport greater energy when Ф = 0
Part b:
The two waves are identical to the first wave, the net amplitude is twice the first waves and the travel in the same tube thus
P_avg=2*P_avg,1
Please ignore my comment -- mass is not needed, here is how to solve it. pls do the math
at bottom box has only kinetic energy
ke = (1/2)mv^2
v = initial velocity
moving up until rest work done = Fs
F = kinetic fiction force = uN = umg x cos(a)
s = distance travel = h/sin(a)
h = height at top
a = slope angle
u = kinetic fiction
work = Fs = umgh x cot(a)
ke = work (use all ke to do work)
(1/2)mv^2 = umgh x cot(a)
u = (1/2)v^2 x tan (a) / gh
We use the Planck’s formula:
E = hv
where,
E = energy, h = planck’s constant = 6.6x10^-34 J s, v =
frequency in Hz (Hz = 1 / s)
Subsituting the values to find for E:
E = (6.6×10^-34 J s) * 9.85×10^14 / s
E = 6.5x10^-19 J
The phases of the Moon and Venus
In freely falling body, there is no force acting on it other than the force of gravity (g).
