Answer:
Hello Sir/ Mam
YOUR REQUIRED ANSWER IS 18.6%
Variables defined in the question:
H - Home - Games
W - Winning Games
Now, given:
P(H0.62 PW)0.22
P(W\mid H)=0.30
Required : Of all the games, percentage of games that were at home wins.
Hence, required :
P(W\cap H)
Now, we know that:
P(W\mid H)=\frac{P(W\cap H)}{P(H)}
0.3=\frac{P(W\cap H)}{0.62}
Hence,
P(W\cap H)=0.3*0.62=0.186=18.6\%
I hope this solves your doubt.
Feel free to comment if you still have any query.
Do give a thumbs up if you find this helpful.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
D.
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:
![\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(a)]= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%7B%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Bf%28a%29%5D%3D%20%5Clim_%7Bx%20%5Cto%20a%7D%5Cfrac%7Bf%28x%29-f%28a%29%7D%7Bx-a%7D%7D)
Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:
![\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(1)]= \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{\ln(x+1)-\ln(2)}{x-1}}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cdisplaystyle%7B%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdx%7D%5Bf%281%29%5D%3D%20%5Clim_%7Bx%20%5Cto%201%7D%5Cfrac%7B%5Cln%28x%2B1%29-%5Cln%282%29%7D%7Bx-1%7D%7D)
Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).
The answer will thus be D.
Answer:
8(23) so 184
Step-by-step explanation:
Invert the divisor and then multiply 7/9 by your result:
7 -7 -49
--- * ------ = ---------
9 11 99
