Answer:
D.
Step-by-step explanation:
Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:
Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:
Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).
The answer will thus be D.
Question 2: Radios remaining is the dependent variables and the hours are the Independent variables
Sorry I do not know.
X= 9/2
X= 4.5
X= 4 1/2