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sineoko [7]
2 years ago
9

Show work. This is a BC calculus problem.

Mathematics
1 answer:
stepan [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:

\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(a)]= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}}

Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:

\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(1)]= \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{\ln(x+1)-\ln(2)}{x-1}}

Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).

The answer will thus be D.

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