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sineoko [7]
3 years ago
9

Show work. This is a BC calculus problem.

Mathematics
1 answer:
stepan [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that the limit definition of a derivative at a point is:

\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(a)]= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}}

Hence, if we let f(x) be ln(x+1) and a be 1, this will yield:

\displaystyle{\frac{d}{dx}[f(1)]= \lim_{x \to 1}\frac{\ln(x+1)-\ln(2)}{x-1}}

Hence, the limit is equivalent to the derivative of f(x) at x=1, or f’(1).

The answer will thus be D.

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Answer:

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2. $140

Step-by-step explanation:

(1) Given the profit function, P(x) where x is the price, the expression which reveals the price which gives a profit of  zero without changing the form of the expression is:

P(x) = -3(x-4)(x - 140)

This is as a result of the fact that equating it to zero immediately yields the zeros of the quadratic polynomial.

(2)When the profit, P(x)=0, then using the expression above we have:

P(x) = -3(x-4)(x - 140)\\Since -3\neq 0, then:\\x-4=0$ or x-140=0\\x=4 or x=140

A price of $4 or $140 as the case may be gives a profit of zero.

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4 years ago
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zvonat [6]
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6 0
4 years ago
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Advocard [28]
By definition. The volume of the sphere is:
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Answer:

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I don't see what you mean for each figure but here goes nothing!

We can split the figure in 2 rectangles

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