Answer:
P₀ = $106.96
Explanation:
the current dividend paid by IBM was $6.30 per stock
Div₀ = $6.30
Div₁ = $6.615
Div₂ = $6.94575
Div₃ = $7.2930375
Div₄ = $7.657689375
Div₅ = $8.040573844
Div₆ = $8.321993928
we must first determine the terminal value at year 5 = Div₆ / (rrr - g) = $8.321993928 / (10% - 3.5%) = $128.0306758
now we must discount the future values using the 10% discount rate:
P₀ = $6.615/1.1 + $6.94575/1.1² + $7.2930375/1.1³ + $7.657689375/1.1⁴ + $8.040573844/1.1⁵ + $128.0306758/1.1⁵ = $6.013 + $5.740 + $5.479 + $5.230 + $4.993 + $79.50 = $106.96
The reason for a bimodel distribution is that a bimodal distribution may occasionally result from merging data from two processes or populations.
<h3>What is a bimodel distribution?</h3>
- Two modes comprise a bimodal distribution. In other words, the results of two distinct processes are integrated into a single collection of data.
- The distribution sometimes goes by the name "double-peaked." Consider the distribution of production data over two shifts in a manufacturing facility.
- Bimodal distributions frequently happen as a result of underlying events.
- A bimodal distribution, for instance, can be seen in the amount of patrons who visit a restaurant each hour because people typically eat out for lunch and dinner.
- The bimodal distribution is brought on by the underlying human behavior.
- If a data set has two modes, it is bimodal. This indicates that no particular data value has the highest frequency of occurrence. Instead, the highest frequency is tied between two data values.
Learn more about bimodel distribution here:
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Answer: Please refer to Explanation
Explanation:
1. Inflationary Gap.
Due to the availability of more disposal income due to tax cuts, more amount is being spent on consumption leading to a rise in actual GDP which is more than the potential GDP as the economy has not adjusted.
2. Output Gap.
This is the difference between the Actual GDP and the Potential GDP.
3. Demand Shock
This increases or reduces Aggregate Demand due but only temporarily.
4. Recessionary Gap.
This is where actual GDP falls below Potential GDP.
5. Supply Shock.
Like a demand shock, it suddenly increases or reduces the supply of goods and services. It is temporary as well.
6. Self Correction
Economists believe that in the long run, the Economy is capable of adjusting to shocks and returning to it's potential and natural levels.
Answer:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $50 per machine-hour
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Estimated overhead costs= $3,400,000 for indirect labor
Estimated overhead costs= $850,000 for factory utilities.
85,000 machine hours are planned for this next year
To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= (3,400,000 + 850,000) / 85,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $50 per machine-hour
Answer:
Retained Earnings
Explanation:
The statement of retained earnings is prepared after preparing the income statement but before preparing the balance sheet. The reason behind this is that the statement of retained earnings is used to calculate the amount of retained earnings at the end of the period to be shown in the balance sheet.
