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valina [46]
2 years ago
13

When responding to questions face-to-face, how should you organize your response?

Business
1 answer:
iragen [17]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. Using the same format you would use if you were responding in writing

Explanation:

here the answer should be A that is

A. Using the same format you would use if you were responding in writing.

What this means is that,  the response should be neutral and catered in a way that we would if we're writing the answer in order to allow a better, more neutral understanding of the process, unless otherwise stated.

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Bond Valuation and Changes in Maturity and Required Returns Suppose Hillard Manufacturing sold an issue of bonds with a 10-year
g100num [7]

Answer:

It will be sold at $1,186.71

Explanation:

We will calculate the present value of the cuopon payment and the maturity at the new market rate of 7%

<u>The coupon payment will be calcualte as the PV of ordinary annuity</u>

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C $50 (1,000 x 10%/2 as there are 2 payment per year)

time    16 (8 years x 2 payment per year)

rate     0.035 (7% rate / 2 payment per year)

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.035)^{-16} }{0.035} = PV\\

PV $604.7058

<u>The maturity will be calculate as the PV of a lump sum</u>

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  1,000.00

time         8 years

rate  0.07

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.07)^{8} } = PV  

PV   582.01

<u>The market price will be the sum of both:</u>

PV cuopon $604.7058

PV maturity  $582.0091

Total $1,186.7149

6 0
3 years ago
A country has been in existence for only two years.
ozzi

Answer:

-1.0 million

Explanation:

the debt issued in the second year is equal to the sum of the excess of revenues over outlays

in year 1, debt = $1.0 million - $1.5 million = $-0.5 million

In year 2, debt  = $1.5 million - $2.0 million = $-0.5 million

$-0.5 million + $-0.5 million  = -1.0 million

4 0
3 years ago
Using Toyota's formula, you are trying to determine the number of parts per kanban. Here is what you know. Demand for the part i
PilotLPTM [1.2K]

Answer:

45

Explanation:

The formula to compute the number of parts is shown below:

= Demand × lead time × (1 + safety factor) ÷ kanban cards

= 300 units × 45 minutes × (1 + 20%) ÷ 6

= 300 × 0.75 hours × 1.2 ÷ 6

= 45

The 45 minutes would be 0.75 hours i.e 45 minutes ÷ 60 minutes = 0.75 hours.

So we consider all the components which are given in the question. Hence, all the information is relevant

7 0
3 years ago
Tyler Tooling Company uses a job order cost system with overhead applied to products on the basis of machine hours. For the upco
inessss [21]

Answer:

<u>Over Applied Overhead      = $ 4000</u>

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied = $ 49,000

Explanation:

                                          Job 101        Job 102        Job 103

Total Direct materials      $ 19,200     $ 14,400       $ 9,600       $ 43,200

Direct labor                    $ 28,800       $ 11,200        $ 9,600      $ 49,600

Machine hours              1,000 hrs        4,000 hrs      2,000 hrs   7,000 hours

<u>Manufacturing overhead   $ 7000       $ 28,000      14,000 </u>

<u>Total                                $ 55,000         53,600        33,200</u>

Actual overhead costs recorded during the first month of operations totaled $45,000.

<u>Journal Entries </u>

<u>Sr. No                    Particulars                 Debit                   Credit</u>

Job 102              Finished Goods           53,600

                           Work In Process                                     53,600

A journal entry showing the transfer of Job 102 into Finished Goods Inventory upon its completion.

Job 101                Sales                         60,000

                        Cost Of Goods Sold                              60,000

Journal entries to recognize the sales revenue and cost of goods sold for Job 101.

Job 101              Cost of Goods Sold        55,000

                          Finished Goods Inventory                  55,000

Manufacturing Overhead Applied =   $ 7000 + $ 28,000+14,000 = $ 49,000

Job 101 = 1000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 7000

Job 102 = 4000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 28000

Job 103 = 2000/60,000 * $ 420,000= $ 14000

Actual Manufacturing Overhead = $45,000

<u>Over Applied Overhead      = $ 4000</u>

                                   

      Manufacturing Overhead  Accounts $ 4000  debit                  

              Cost of Goods Sold          $ 4000 Credit

Entry to transfer the balance of the Manufacturing Overhead account to Cost of Goods Sold.

(Entry to reduce the amount of Over applied Overhead)                                

                         

6 0
3 years ago
$500 at an interest rate of 8% for 2 years with an additional deposit of $500 each year
artcher [175]

Answer:

either$80. or 500 of 2yrs add to $80

4 0
3 years ago
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