Answer:
a. False
Explanation:
A "primary transaction" refers to the selling of <em>new stocks and bonds</em> for the first time towards the public. A great example of this is the "Initial Public Offering" <em>(IPO)</em> which allows "public share issuance."
On the other hand, a "secondary transaction" refers to the<em> trading of investors among themselves.</em> There is no involvement of the issuing companies here. So, this means that if an investor uses the services of a broker to buy and sell stocks that are currently being traded in the stock market,<u> the transaction</u><u> doesn't directly involve the issuing compan</u><u>y.</u> This kind of transaction is then called "secondary."
So, this explains the answer.
Structural unemployment is caused by <u>people losing a job when their skills become obsolete due to technological innovations.</u>
- People who wish to work but are unable to obtain job are said to be experiencing structural unemployment. The abilities of the workers and the talents that businesses required do not match in structural unemployment.
- Because the abilities of the workforce won't change despite advances in technology, if technological breakthroughs improve, there will be structural unemployment.
- As a result of their inability to keep up with modern technology, they are losing their jobs.
<h2>
What is Structural unemployment?</h2>
A mismatch between the skills of the jobless and the jobs that are available is referred to as structural unemployment. It differs from cyclical unemployment in that it results from factors other than the business cycle. 1 It happens when an underlying economic shift makes it challenging for some people to find work. It is more difficult to reverse than other forms of unemployment.
Learn more about types of structural unemployment at brainly.com/question/17272067?referrer=searchResults
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Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
It is true that under the all-events test, in addition to specifying that all events to establish the liability must have occurred, the test also provides that the business must be able to determine the amount of the liability with reasonable accuracy
Under Sec. 461(h), a three-prongall-events test is met when
(1) all events have occurred that establish the fact of the liability;
(2) <u>the amount of the liability can be determined with reasonable accuracy</u>; and
(3) economic performance has occurred.
Answer:
a. level 3
b.level 1
c. level 2
Explanation:
Vande Velde Company made three investments during 2017. Where will Vande Velde report these investments in the fair value hierarchy?1. It purchased 1,000 shares of Sastre Company, a start-up company. Vande Velde made the investment based on valuation estimates from an internally developed model.2. It purchased 2,000 shares of GE stock, which trades on the NYSE. 3. It invested $10,000 in local development authority bonds. Although these bonds do not trade on an active market, their value closely tracks movements in U.S. Treasury bond.
The fair value hierarchy gives the highest priority to quoted prices in active markets for identical assets or liabilities (Level 1), and the lowest priority to unobservable inputs (Level 3) while Level 2 assets are financial assets and liabilities that are neither easy or overly complex to value.Going by the explanation the investment will be given hierarchy 3, 2,1
if Van verde purchased shares on the New York stock Exchange , then the percentage in price over time is more than the other two options . In stock purchase, investors can realised more profit on their stocks than bond which can give like 10-15% on the initial cash outlay. The only caveat is that Stocks is a little bit risky and could be volatile owing to price fluctuations ,and the forces of demand and supply.
Pardon me but how about…yes?
