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mote1985 [20]
3 years ago
6

Find the solution of the initial value problem dy/dx=(-2x+y)^2-7 ,y(0)=0

Mathematics
1 answer:
Leokris [45]3 years ago
5 0

Substitute v(x)=-2x+y(x), so that \dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}=-2+\dfrac{\mathrm dy}{\mathrm dx}. Then the ODE is equivalent to

\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{\mathrm dx}+2=v^2-7

which is separable as

\dfrac{\mathrm dv}{v^2-9}=\mathrm dx

Split the left side into partial fractions,

\dfrac1{v^2-9}=\dfrac16\left(\dfrac1{v-3}-\dfrac1{v+3}\right)

so that integrating both sides is trivial and we get

\dfrac{\ln|v-3|-\ln|v+3|}6=x+C

\ln\left|\dfrac{v-3}{v+3}\right|=6x+C

\dfrac{v-3}{v+3}=Ce^{6x}

\dfrac{v+3-6}{v+3}=1-\dfrac6{v+3}=Ce^{6x}

\dfrac6{v+3}=1-Ce^{6x}

v=\dfrac6{1-Ce^{6x}}-3

-2x+y=\dfrac6{1-Ce^{6x}}-3

y=2x+\dfrac6{1-Ce^{6x}}-3

Given the initial condition y(0)=0, we find

0=\dfrac6{1-C}-3\implies C=-1

so that the ODE has the particular solution,

\boxed{y=2x+\dfrac6{1+e^{6x}}-3}

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How do you do this question?
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

V = (About) 22.2, Graph = First graph/Graph in the attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that in all these cases, we have a specified method to use, the washer method, disk method, and the cylindrical shell method. Keep in mind that the washer and disk method are one in the same, but I feel that the disk method is better as it avoids splitting the integral into two, and rewriting the curves. Here we will go with the disk method.

\mathrm{V\:=\:\pi \int _a^b\left(r\right)^2dy\:},\\\mathrm{V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy}

The plus 1 in '1 + 2/x' is shifting this graph up from where it is rotating, but the negative 1 is subtracting the area between the y-axis and the shaded region, so that when it's flipped around, it becomes a washer.

V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy,\\\\\mathrm{Take\:the\:constant\:out}:\quad \int a\cdot f\left(x\right)dx=a\cdot \int f\left(x\right)dx\\=\pi \cdot \int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1dy\\\\\mathrm{Apply\:the\:Sum\:Rule}:\quad \int f\left(x\right)\pm g\left(x\right)dx=\int f\left(x\right)dx\pm \int g\left(x\right)dx\\= \pi \left(\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy-\int _1^31dy\right)\\\\

\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy=4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{14}{3}, \int _1^31dy=2\\\\=> \pi \left(4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{14}{3}-2\right)\\=> \pi \left(4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{8}{3}\right)

Our exact solution will be V = π(4In(3) + 8/3). In decimal form it will be about 22.2 however. Try both solution if you like, but it would be better to use 22.2. Your graph will just be a plot under the curve y = 2/x, the first graph.

5 0
3 years ago
40+40×0+1<br><br>a) 1<br><br>b)41<br><br>c)82<br><br>??​
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Answer:

the law of bodmas multiplication first so

40+(40*0)+1

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3 0
3 years ago
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