Question

In the passage Thomas Jefferson wrote in 1776 Do you think the statement, “All men are created equal,” meant the same thing then as it does to us today? Explain.
(and ill make you brainliest if you explain, and you get 20 points for answering)

Answer 1

No, the answer to this would be no due to the fact that it was a different time back in 1776. If Thomas Jefferson truest beloved that there wouldn’t be slaves and discrimination in the world. Back then Jefferson was referring to the British and American colonies That’s why we broke away a completely different meaning to what it is today.

Answer 2

Answer: No

Explanation: 1779 was a very different time than it is now. People have evolved, and with that, have become smarter. In 1776 man were thought of as "surpierior to woman." In 1776 Thomas Jefferson most likely mean "men," just men. Now, we refer to the human race as "men" in an "all gender" term. Lets take Thomas Jeffersons wrighting for example, he states, "All men are created equal" meaning all men are created equal. But in the modern world the statment "All men are created equal" means men and woman, or "All humans are created equal."