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Neporo4naja [7]
3 years ago
6

The sum of the numbers j,k, and m is 115. The ratio of j to k is 2:7 and the ratio of k to m is 14:5. What is the value of k?

Mathematics
2 answers:
I am Lyosha [343]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I know how to help you.

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a web site called Khan Academy and it can help you understand how to solve it and it is completely free and you can use it as much as you want. There are videos that explain it to you and problems like help with practice I 100% reccomend it!

JulijaS [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

f. 70

Step-by-step explanation:

I did this question in another brainly problem, but ok. So first k has to be able to divide by 14 and 7. Divided all the answers by 7 first. Then 14. Only 70 is able to divide by 7 and 14. Lastly check to see if it works. 2:7 = 20=70. 14:5 = 70:25. 20+70+25=115.

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Find the volume pleaseeee
Svetlanka [38]

Step-by-step explanation:

first do the triangle : 11 times 6 divided by 2 equals

33

the formula for a triangle is base times height divided by 2

now multiply 33 x 2  = 66because there is another triangle at the back.

now do 6 x 8 to find the sides that equal to 48

do 48 x 2 because there are 2 sides

now do the base : 11x8 = 88

for final step add all the answers together

66 + 48 + 88 answer is =

202

PLEASE MARK BRAINLIEST I PUT IN ALOT OF TIME FOR This

Hope it helps :)

4 0
2 years ago
Pls help anyone plsss
kiruha [24]

3 times flipped, two sides fo a coin heads and tails, 2/3 meaning most likely

4 0
3 years ago
How do we solve these type of questions
svetoff [14.1K]
In the second equation it is actually going on to be +2x^2 -4x-2 then your going to combine like terms. So it will be 5x^2-10. Because he 4x’s are going to eliminate each other.
4 0
3 years ago
Computer keyboard failures are due to faulty electrical connects (12%) or mechanical defects (88%). Mechanical defects are relat
Margaret [11]

Answer:

a) 23.76%

b) 7.8%

Step-by-step explanation:

a) probability that a failure is due to loose keys.

loose key failure (27%) comes under mechanical failure(88%)

hence, probability that a failure is due to loose keys= 0.27×0.88= 0.2376= 23.76%

b)  probability that a failure is due to improperly connected wire which comes under electrical failure = 0.12×0.13

probability that a failure is due to poorly welded wires which comes under electrical failure= 0.52×0.12

now, the probability that a failure is due to improperly connected or poorly welded wires. = 0.12(0.52+0.13)= 0.078= 7.8%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
MY NOTES
jeka57 [31]
<h3>Answers:</h3>

Part 1)  \displaystyle \frac{1}{n^2} or 1/(n^2) goes in the box.

Part 2)  The series <u>converges</u>

======================================================

Work Shown:

\displaystyle L = \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{a_n}{b_n}\\\\\\\displaystyle L = \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{\frac{n+3}{n^3-5n+8}}{\frac{1}{n^2}}\\\\\\\displaystyle L = \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{n+3}{n^3-5n+8}\times\frac{n^2}{1}\\\\\\\displaystyle L = \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{n^3+3n^2}{n^3-5n+8}\\\\\\

\displaystyle L = \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{\frac{n^3}{n^3}+\frac{3n^2}{n^3}}{\frac{n^3}{n^3}-\frac{5n}{n^3}+\frac{8}{n^3}}\\\\\\\displaystyle L = \lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{1+\frac{3}{n}}{1-\frac{5}{n^2}+\frac{8}{n^3}}\\\\\\\displaystyle L = \frac{1+0}{1-0+0}\\\\\\\displaystyle L = 1\\\\\\

Because L is finite and positive, i.e. 0 < L < \infty, this means that the original series given and the series  

\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2}  

either converge together or diverge together due to the Limit Comparison Test.

But the simpler series is known to converge (p-series test).

Therefore, the original series converges as well.

The two series likely don't converge to the same value, but they both converge nonetheless.

7 0
2 years ago
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