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Mashutka [201]
3 years ago
10

A bag contains balls numbered 1 to 20 if one is chosen at random what is the probability that it is prime

Mathematics
1 answer:
sergey [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 8/20 or 40%.

Step-by-step explanation: The prime numbers between 1 and 20 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, and 19. 8 in total, so 8/20. Divide 8 by 20 and you get 0.4 which transfers to 40%.

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klemol [59]

Answer:

See proof below

Step-by-step explanation:

Assume that V is a vector space over the field F (take F=R,C if you prefer).

Let x\in span(S_1). Then, we can write x as a linear combination of elements of s1, that is, there exist v_1,v_2,\cdots,v_k \in S_1 and a_1,a_2,\cdots,a_k\in F such that x=a_1v_1+a_2v_2+\cdots+a_kv_k. Now, S_1\subseteq S_2 then for all y\in S_1 we have that y\in S_2. In particular, taking y=v_j with j=1,2,\cdots,k we have that v_j\in S_2. Then, x is a linear combination of vectors in S2, therefore x\in span(S_2). We conclude that span(S_1)\subseteq span(S_2).

If, additionally  S_2\subseteq S_1 then reversing the roles of S1 and S2 in the previous proof, span(S_2)\subseteq span(S_1). Then span(S_1)\subseteq span(S_2)\subseteq span(S_1), therefore span(S_1)=span(S_2).

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