He should take the option one of sales commission of 3.1% on
each bond. If he takes the 2nd option, he is required to pay 24$ per
bond. But if he takes the ist option, he is required to pay 15.5$ per bond.
88.754 is the market rate. Total investment is of 500$. Multiply the commission
rate with the amount and you get 15.5 $. There is a difference of 8.5 dollars
between the two options.
Answer:
The effect is an increase in the balance of assets by $87,000 and a corresponding increase in the balance of liabilities.
Explanation:
The accounting equation shows the relationship between all the elements of the balance sheet. These are the assets, liabilities and owners equity. It is shown as
Assets = Liabilities + Equity
When a company buys an asset on account, the entries required are debit assets, credit accounts payable. This means that asset increases but so does liabilities balance.
Hence asset increases to
= $624,000 + $87,000
= $711,000
Liabilities also increases to
= $262,000 + $87,000
= $349,000
It all depends on the degree of consumer risk aversion. Some consumers are more likely to be at risk than others. If my propensity for risk in the face of the possibility of a premium is greater, I will prefer the adjustable hypotheca, which gives me the chance to pay less in the end. If I am a risk averse consumer, I will prefer a fixed hypotheque that will give predictability to my budget.
Answer:
a)
P₀ = Div₁ / (Re - g)
- P₀ = current stock price = ?
- Div₁ = next dividend = $8
- Re = equity cost = 10%
- g = constant growth rate = 5%
P₀ = $8 / (10% - 5%) = $8 / 5% = $160
b)
EPS = $12
Return on equity (ROE) = g / b
b = retention rate = 1 - payout ratio = 1 - ($8/$12) = 0.333
g = 5%
ROE = 5% / 0.333 = 15%
c)
Present value of growth opportunity (PVGO) = P₀ - EPS/Re
- P₀ = $160
- EPS = $12
- Re = 10%
PVGO = $160 - $12/10% = $160 - $120 = $40 per share
