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Ede4ka [16]
3 years ago
15

When depreciation is computed for partial periods under a decreasing charge depreciation method, it is necessary to a. charge a

full year's depreciation to the year of acquisition. b. determine depreciation expense for the full year and then prorate the expense between the two periods involved. c. use the straight-line method for the year in which the asset is sold or otherwise disposed of. d. use a salvage value equal to the first year's partial depreciation charge. Use the partial year depreciation rule.
Business
1 answer:
Butoxors [25]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is letter B.

Explanation:

Determine depreciation expense for the full year and then prorate the expense between the two periods involved.

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Within the​ growth-share matrix,​ "cash cows" are​ __________.
Flura [38]

Within the​ growth-share matrix,​ "cash cows" are low-growth, high-share businesses or products.

4 0
3 years ago
A machine can be purchased for $202,000 and used for five years, yielding the following net incomes. In projecting net incomes,
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

2.36 years

Explanation:

Payback calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from it cumulative cash flows.

To derive cash flows from net income, depreciation expenses should be added to net income.

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2 / 5 = 0.4

Deprecation expense in year 1 = 0.4 x $202,000 = $80,800

Book value in year 2 = $202,000 - $80,800 = $121,200

Deprecation expense in year 2 = 0.4 x $121,200 = $48,480

Book value in year 3 = $121,200 - $48,480 = $72,720

Deprecation expense in year 3 = 0.4 x $72,720 = $29,088

Book value in year 4 = $72,720 - $29,088 = $43,632

Deprecation expense in year 4 = $43,632 x 0.4 = $17,452.80

Book value in year 5 = $43,632 x 0.4 - $17,452.80 = $26,179.20

Deprecation expense in year 5 = $26,179.20 x 0.4 = $10,471.68

Cash flow in year 1 = $18,000 +  $80,800 = $98,800

Cash flow in year 2 = $25,000 + $48,480 = $73,480

Cash flow in year 3 = $53,000  + $29,088 = $82,088

Cash flow in year 4 = $58,000  + $17,452.80 = $75,452.80

Cash flow in year 5 = $108,000 + $10,471.68 = $118,471.68

Please check the attached image for how the payback period was calculated

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Your grandparents would like to establish a trust fund that will pay you and your heirs $215,000 per year forever with the first
Tju [1.3M]

Answer:

They should invest $5,119,047.619 today.

Explanation:

The trust fund will pay a fixed amount forever thus it is a perpetuity. The value of perpetuity or Price of perpetuity is the amount that the perpetuity is worth in today's terms based on the cash flows it will generate in future.

The formula for the value or price of perpetuity is,

P0 or V = Cash Flow / r

Thus,

P0 or V = 215000 / 0.04   =  $5,119,047.619

7 0
3 years ago
What fact or facts support a situation where trade is advantageous?
DedPeter [7]

What fact or facts support a situation where trade is advantageous?

B. II only

8 0
3 years ago
Making journal entries Assume that during the month of April the production report of Austin Adhesives, Inc., in E8-10 revealed
Alex_Xolod [135]

Missing Information:

The normal capacity of  is 40,000 direct labor hours and 20,000 units per month. A finished unit requires 6 lb of materials at an estimated cost of $2 per pound. The estimated cost of labor is $10.00 per hour.

Answer:

Raw materials Inventory   260,000 debit  

D:M price variance                2,600 debit

     Account Payable                   257,400 credit

--to record the purchase ---

WIP-Inventory          248,000 debit

DM quality variance    2,000 debit

       Raw materials Inventory   250,000 debit

--to record requisition of materials--

WIP-Inventory    420,000 debit

D:L rate variance    1,640 debit

    Wages Payables             411,640 credit

    DL efficiency variance     10,000 credit

--to record the charge of labor into WIP--

Explanation:

130,000 pounds x $1.98 (actual)      = $257,400‬

130,000 pounds x $2.00 (standard) = $260,000

variance 2,600 favorable

Quantity Variance:

actual: 125,000 x $2 = 250,000

standard:  21,000 x 6 = 124,000 pounds x $2 = 248,000

variance: 2,000 unfavorable  

41,000 hours x $10.04 each = $411,640

41,000 hours x $10.00 each = $410,000

rate variance 1,640 unfavorable

efficiency variance:

21,000 x 2 hours = 42,000 hours x $10 = 420,000

actual 41,000 x $10 = 410,000

favorable 10,000

6 0
3 years ago
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