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Ede4ka [16]
3 years ago
15

When depreciation is computed for partial periods under a decreasing charge depreciation method, it is necessary to a. charge a

full year's depreciation to the year of acquisition. b. determine depreciation expense for the full year and then prorate the expense between the two periods involved. c. use the straight-line method for the year in which the asset is sold or otherwise disposed of. d. use a salvage value equal to the first year's partial depreciation charge. Use the partial year depreciation rule.
Business
1 answer:
Butoxors [25]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is letter B.

Explanation:

Determine depreciation expense for the full year and then prorate the expense between the two periods involved.

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ASC 480-10 provides guidance on determining whether (1) certain financial instruments with both debt-like and equity-like charac
Aliun [14]

Answer:

. Redeemable shares.

• Redeemable noncontrolling interests.

• Forward contracts to repurchase own shares.

• Forward contracts to sell redeemable shares.

• Written put options on own stock.

• Warrants (and written call options) on redeemable equity shares.

• Warrants on shares with deemed liquidation provisions.

• Puttable warrants on own stock.

• Equity collars.

• Share-settled debt (this term is used to describe a share-settled obligation that  is not in the legal form of debt but has the same economic payoff profile as debt).

• Preferred shares that are mandatorily convertible into a variable number of common shares.

• Unsettled treasury stock transactions.

• Accelerated share repurchase programs.

• Hybrid equity units.

Explanation:

ASC 480-10 is used when an issuer, in the declaration of its financial position, has to categorize some financial instruments that share the characteristics of liabilities and equities. The issuer always classifies legal-form debt as liability and this makes it not applicable under the ASC 480-10.

Under the ASC 480-10, three types of financial instruments are meant to be classified and they include;

1. Mandatorily redeemable financial instruments

2. Obligations to repurchase the entity’s equity shares by transferring assets, and

3.Certain obligations to issue a variable number of equity shares

6 0
3 years ago
If real GDP increased from $10 billion to $11 billion from the first quarter of 2016 to the first quarter of 2017, but had incre
Sphinxa [80]

Answer:

10%; 16%

Explanation:

Given that,

Real GDP in the first quarter of 2016 = $10 billion

Real GDP in the first quarter of 2017 = $11 billion

Increased from the fourth quarter of 2016 to the first quarter of 2017 = 4%

Growth rate from the first quarter of 2016 to first quarter of 2017:

= \frac{GDP_{2017}-GDP_{2016}  }{GDP_{2016}}\times 100

= \frac{11-10  }{10}}\times 100

= 10%

Real GDP growth rate is as follows:

= 4% × 4

= 16%

3 0
3 years ago
If a business offers both routine and specialized​ services, a single cost driver rate will​ overprice: A. the specialized servi
Svetlanka [38]

Answer:

D. the routine service.

Explanation:

Single cost driver rate: It is a cost assigned to each unit of cost driver activity directly. Cost driver also influence other business activity and effect the total cost incurred.

In the given case, Business offer both routine and specialized service, as we know single cost driver influence driver directly, therefore, cost driver of specialized service will overprice the routine service.

6 0
3 years ago
The financial crisis of 2008 demonstrated the flaw in a bottom-up detailed approach to calculating risk. There are
Troyanec [42]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
The following information is available for Patrick Products for the year: Budgeted sales during the year 5,000 units Actual sale
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

$125,000 Adverse variance as the cost actually incurred is higher.

Explanation:

The first step here is to find the Flexed Variable Overhead Cost by using the unitary method:

Budgeted overhead cost for 10,000 budgeted hrs = $2500,000

Budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $2500,000 / 10000 bud. hrs

Budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $250 per standard hr

And as we know that

Flexed Variable Overhead Budget = Actual Units * Budgeted overhead cost for standard hr

By simply putting values we have:

Flexed Variable Overhead Budget = 9000 hours * $250 per standard hr

= $2,2500,000

Now we will find the Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance by taking the difference of Variable overhead flexible budget and Actual Variable Overhead.

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = Variable overhead flexible budget - Actual Variable Overhead

By putting the values we have:

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = $2,2500,000 - $2,375,000

= $125,000 Adverse variance as the cost actually incurred is higher.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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