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3 years ago

11

Complete the statements using the drop-down menus. The line perpendicular to the y-axis through the point (–4, –2) is . The slop

e of this line is .

1 answer:

Vlad [161]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Y=-2, 0

Step-by-step explanation:

EDG 2020

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What is 43.78 in word form

KengaRu [80]

43.78 = forty three and seventy eight hundredths.

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3 years ago

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Please include an explanation so I know how to do this. Thanks!

klasskru [66]

Hello there,

So we are trying to find out is the angle ∠BAC in degrees.

So what we are going to do is. . .25- (2x-10)°.

That answer would be -2x+35.

So ∠BAC= -2x+35°.
Hope this helps.

~Jurgen

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3 years ago

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Tom bought a PS4 on Black Friday for 25% off. If the system sells for $399, what is the sales price of the PS4?

Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

The sales price of the PS4 is $532.

Step-by-step explanation:

The system sells for $399 after giving 25% off on a Black Friday on the sales price.

Let the sales price of the PS4 system is $x.

Then after giving 25% discount the price will become $x(1 - \frac{25}{100}) = 0.75x$

Therefore, 0.75x = 399

⇒ x = 532

Therefore, the sales price of the PS4 is $532. (Answer)

7 0

3 years ago

Seventh grade > EE.11 Probability of independent and dependent events NED

ella [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

each combination of 2 specific numbers has the same probability. there is no difference in probability between the individual numbers.

remember, a probability is always desired cases over all possible cases.

we have 4 different possible outcomes every time we spin the spinner.

to get a specific number has the probability of 1/4, because we want 1 specific outcome, and have in total 4 different possibilities.

now, we spin a second time. the probability to get a specific number is again 1/4.

but, if we consider both events to be connected, when we want to know the probability to get 2 specific numbers when spinning twice, we have to multiply the individual probabilities :

1/4 × 1/4 = 1/16

so, the probability to land first on a 5, and then secondly on a 2 is 1/16.

the same as for landing first on a 3, and then on a 5.

the same as for landing first on a 4, and then on a 4 (again).

that is because the individual spin results are independent. the result of the first spin does not impact in any way the result of the second spin (in contrary to e.g. pulling multiple cards without returning the previously pulled cards).

8 0

3 years ago

What is 1/x^2 in the power of x

Serhud [2]

we have given that $\frac{1}{x^2}$ .

we need to express this interms of power of x .

we know that $\frac{1}{x^n} =x^-n$ .

in place of n we have 2 .so $\frac{1}{x^2} =x^-2$ .

so this will be the expression interms of power of x .

6 0

3 years ago