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nirvana33 [79]
3 years ago
13

The management of Krach Corporation would like to investigate the possibility of basing its predetermined overhead rate on activ

ity at capacity. The company's controller has provided an example to illustrate how this new system would work. In this example, the allocation base is machine-hours and the estimated amount of the allocation base for the upcoming year is 19,000 machine-hours. Capacity is 24,000 machine-hours and the actual level of activity for the year is assumed to be 12,000 machine-hours. All of the manufacturing overhead is fixed and both the estimated amount at the beginning of the year and the actual amount at the end of the year are assumed to be $33,600 per year. For simplicity, it is assumed that this is the estimated manufacturing overhead for the year as well as the manufacturing overhead at capacity. It is further assumed that this is also the actual amount of manufacturing overhead for the year. If the company bases its predetermined overhead rate on capacity, what would be the cost of unused capacity reported on the income statement prepared for internal management purposes?
Business
2 answers:
Anna71 [15]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Answer is 16800.

Refer below for the explanation.

Explanation:

As per the question,

Upcoming year is 19,000 machine-hours,

Capacity is 24,000 machine-hours,

Actual level of activity for the year is assumed to be 12,000 machine-hours,

Amount assumed $33,600 per year.

Cost of unused capacity=??

=Processing times / machine hours.

= 33,600 / 24,000.

= 1.4 per hour on machine.

Amount not used of resources,

= capacity of machine hours - Machine hours actual x Overhead speed

=24,000-12,000x 1.4.

=6,800

Effectus [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

<em>16,800 dollars.</em>

Explanation:

<em>Overhead rate predetermined at availability. </em>

= Approximate overhead processing times / Capacity machine hours.

= $33,600 / 24,000.

= $1.4 per hour on machine.

<em>Cost of Resources not used. </em>

= (Machine hours at capacity - Actual machine hours) x Overhead speed estimated at load.

= ( 24,000 - 12,000) x $1.4.

= 16,800 dollars.

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Lena is a sole proprietor. In April of this year, she sold equipment purchased four years ago for $26,000 with an adjusted basis
viva [34]

Answer:

  1. Lena has a ORDINARY GAIN of $1,500 from the sale of the first equipment.
  2. Lena has a ORDINARY LOSS of $2,700 from the sale of the second equipment.

Explanation:

Lena sold the first equipment for $17,000, and that resulted in an ordinary gain = $17,000 - $15,500 = $1,500. This gain was due to a §1245 depreciation recapture.

Lena sold the second equipment for $5,500, and that resulted in an ordinary loss (§1231 loss) = $5,500 - $8,200 = $2,700.

7 0
2 years ago
Assume that you manage a risky portfolio with an expected rate of return of 18% and a standard deviation of 42%. The T-bill rate
amm1812

Answer:

a. Expected Return = 16.20 %

   Standard Deviation = 35.70%

b. Stock A  = 22.10%

   Stock B  = 29.75%

   Stock C  = 33.15%

   T-bills  = 15%

Explanation:

a. To calculate the expected return of the portfolio, we simply multiply the Expected return of the stock with the weight of the stock in the portfolio.

Thus, the expected return of the client's portfolio is,

  • w1 * r1 + w2 * r2
  • 85% * 18% + 15% * 6% = 16.20%

The standard deviation of a portfolio with a risky and risk free asset is equal to the standard deviation of the risky asset multiply by its weightage in the portfolio as the risk free asset like T-bill has zero standard deviation.

  • 85% * 42% = 35.70%

b. The investment proportions of the client is equal to his investment in T-bills and risky portfolio. If the risky portfolio investment is considered of the set proportion investment in Stock A, B & C then the 85% investment of the client will be divided in the following proportions,

  • Stock A = 85% * 26% = 22.10%
  • Stock B = 85% * 35% = 29.75%
  • Stock C = 85% * 39% = 33.15%
  • T-bills = 15%
  • These all add up to make 100%
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Effect of Inventory Errors During the taking of its physical inventory on December 31, 20Y3, Sellers Company incorrectly counted
Illusion [34]

Answer:

Cost of goods sold  = overstated : $24,265

Current assets  = understated : $24,265

Gross profit  = understated : $24,265

Inventory  = understated : $24,265

Net income  = understated : $24,265

Stockholders' equity  = understated : $24,265

Total assets = understated : $24,265

Explanation:

Inventory was understated by $24,265 ($327,560 - $303,295). Since inventory is an Asset, also it is a Income Statement element and consequently affects Retained Earnings (Distributions to Shareholders) , the effect is shown above.

3 0
3 years ago
Rockville Enterprises manufactures woodworking equipment and is incorporated and based in Evansville, Indiana. All of itsreal pr
mario62 [17]

Answer:

In the modern situation of Rockville Enterprises, it is producing wood functioning tools and situated in Evansville, following are the description whether Rockville Enterprise is a defensive commotion in non-ordinary conditions or not.

A)  - Yes. All form of marketing is deliberated as secure action. As these marketing is revealed in all country.

B) - No. Inspection credit value of consumers is not secure action underneath the public regulation 86-272

C) - Yes. Sustaining a stand at a business exhibition in Arizona for 14 days is measured as secure action under the public regulation 86-272

D) - Yes. Inspection record is secure action underneath the public regulation 86-272

E)  - No. Organizing administration meeting is not a secure action. Conversely. Organizing individual meeting is measured as secure action.

3 0
2 years ago
Flannery Corporation owns machinery with a book value of $520,000. It is estimated that the machinery will generate future cash
Aleonysh [2.5K]

Answer:

(d)$105,000.

Explanation:

Since the book value is more than the generated future cash flows so book value cannot be recovered. In this case, the generated future cash flows are ignored  

In this scenario, we compare the values between book value and the fair value of machinery, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset

In mathematically,  

= Book value of machinery - fair value of machinery

= $520,000 - $415,000

= $105,000

5 0
3 years ago
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