<em>Hey</em><em>!</em><em>!</em>
<em>1</em><em> </em><em>and </em><em>2</em><em> </em><em>are</em><em> </em><em>vertical</em><em> </em><em>angles</em><em>.</em>
<em>Vertically</em><em> </em><em>opp</em><em>osite</em><em> </em><em>angles</em><em> </em><em>are</em><em> </em><em>always</em><em> </em><em>equal</em><em> </em><em>to</em><em> </em><em>each</em><em> </em><em>other</em><em>.</em>
<em>Hope</em><em> </em><em>it</em><em> </em><em>helps</em><em>.</em><em>.</em>
Answer:
part b is 32
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
18.95%
Step-by-step explanation:
In this case what we must do is calculate the probability of eating a jelly treats first and then another jelly treats, being the final probability the multiplication of these events.
We know that there are 20 in total and that initially there are 9 jelly treats, so the first event is the probability:
9/20
And the second event, with one less in each, would be:
8/19
The final probability then:
9/20 * 8/19 = 0.1895
So the probability of this happening is 18.95%
The formula to use here would be:
A = P(1+r)^t where P is the principal (starting) amount, r is the rate of interest, and t is time. Knowing this, plug in your values:
A = 14,000(1+0.07)^4 once worked out, you should get $18,351.14414 < this is the total amount he would be paying at the end of 4 years. to find the interest, subtract this amount from the principal amount (14,000):
$18,5351.14414 - 14,000 = 4,351.14414 < this is the amount of interest. Round your answer.
Answer: Jamal will pain $4,351.14 interest.
The selling price would be $11.20.
40% = 40/100 = 0.4
The mark up is 40% of the cost; this means 40% of 8:
40% of 8 = 0.4(8) = 3.20
8 + 3.20 = 11.20