Answer:
4 beacause when we multiply it will be 8.9523
For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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Answer:
2 root 15
Step-by-step explanation:
2 squared + x squared= 8 squared
4+ x squared= 64
xsquared =60
square root of sixty = 2 root 15
This looks fun
ok so
we will use subsitution
xy=-10
divide both sides by x or y (I will choose y)
x=-10/y
sub -10/y fo x
(-10/y)^2+y^2=36
100/(y^2)+y^2=36
times both sides by y^2
100+y^4=36y^2
minus 36y^2 from both sides
y^4-36y^2+100=0
(y^2)^2-36(y^2)+100=0
quadratic formula
for
ax^2+bx+c=0
x=
x=
x=
sub
y=-10/x
y=
so x+y=
+
multiply first number by
and add them
x+y=
or
x+y=
or