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djverab [1.8K]
3 years ago
7

The inverse of f(x) is a function. true or false

Mathematics
2 answers:
e-lub [12.9K]3 years ago
6 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>

The statement: The inverse of f(x) is a function is:

                         True Statement.

<h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

The necessary condition that guarantees that a inverse of a function is again a function is:

<em> " The function must be a one-to one function "</em>

Otherwise the inverse may not be a function.

From the given graph of the function we see that the function is a one-to-one function as it passes the horizontal line test i.e. any line passing through the co-domain and parallel to x-axis should intersect the graph atmost once.

      Yes, the inverse of the given function F(x) is again a function.

Svetradugi [14.3K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer is True.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there is only one y for every value  of x and only one x for every value of y, both this graph and it's inverse would both be functions.

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