This is fairly complex, but looks like fun.
So first lets count how many bids are made till the bidding goes up to 160.
That is 100*160=16000
How much will be your random bid. Each bid has equal chance so it is the avarge of all bids. (1cent + 160dollars)/2 = 80dollars (rounded)
What is your chance of winning: 1 bid wins out of 16000 so 1/16000.
When you win your profit is 2000-80dollars=1920
1920/16000= 0.12 dollars
You entering the bidding costs 1 dollar and your average win is 0.12
This the outcome is 0.12-1=-0.88 dollars
This inequality should be written like this -
7/10x + 14 < 49
Answer:
C. 1/9
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming the selections are independent, their joint probability is the product of the probabilities of the individual events.
P(pink square) = (# pink squares)/(# squares) = 16/60 = 4/15
P(red or blue round) = (#red or blue rounds)/(# rounds) = 15/36
Then the joint probability is ...
P(defined event) = (4/15)(15/36) = 4/36 = 1/9
Answer:
Enjoy, Glad i could help
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Your Answer is going to be C
