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Nikolay [14]
4 years ago
8

A company has $80,000 in outstanding accounts receivable and it uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts.

Experience suggests that 6% of outstanding receivables are uncollectible. The current credit balance (before adjustments) in the allowance for doubtful accounts is $1,200. The journal entry to record the adjustment would be how much?
Business
1 answer:
Galina-37 [17]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

  • Dr Bad Debt expense 6,000
  • Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account 6,000

Explanation:

The total estimated bad debts are $4,800 (= $80,000 x 6%). So the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account ending balance should be $4,800. Since this account is a contra asset account, the ending balance should be $4,800 credited.

But currently the account has a $1,200 debit balance (it's like -$1,200), so the adjustment record must be = $4,800 + $1,200 = $6,000

That way the ending balance = $6,000 - $1,200 = $4,800

The journal entries should be:

  • Dr Bad Debt expense 6,000
  • Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account 6,000

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Solution :

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               Cash                                                    $4500

              Account receivable                                                    $4500

3.            Accounts payable                                   $250

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                Accounts payable                                                      $520

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
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Nadya [2.5K]

Answer: $24,000

Explanation:

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= Sales - Cost of goods sold - Selling and admin expenses

Cost of goods sold = Variable production cost + Fixed production cost

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Selling and admin expenses:

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3 years ago
Archie Co. purchased a framing machine for $45,000 on January 1, 2018. The machine is expected to have a four-year life, with a
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Answer:

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For computing the the book value of an asset , first we have to determine the depreciation expense which is shown below"

So, under the straight-line method, the depreciation expense would be

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)  

= ($45,000 - $5,000) ÷ (4 years)  

= ($40,000) ÷ (4 years)  

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For two years, the depreciation would be

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In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

Now the book value would be

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