The main disadvantage of the valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
In a free cash flow valuation, the intrinsic value equals present value of its free cash flow and thus, the net cash flow is left over for distribution to stockholders and debt-holders in each period.
- So, the disadvantage of the free cash flow valuation method is that the terminal value tends to dominate the total value in many cases.
Hence, the Option B is correct.
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Answer:
The First Bank loan has an effective rate of 7.98 percent.
Explanation:
we calcualte the effective rate for both loand and check which statement is correct.
<u>First bank:</u>


1.07977643 - 1 = 0.07977 = 7.98%
<u>Second bank:</u>


1.076798729 - 1 = 0.076798729 = 7.68%
Notice tthis isthe effective rate not the annual percentage rate.
So only the statement abour the first bank effectibe rate is true.
Answer:
A standard unmodified opinion.
Explanation:
When a note to the financial statements of the First Security Bank indicates that the company self insures itself for the first $500,000 of liability to employees, with liability insurance for the remainder. Based upon this, one would expect the auditors' report to express a standard unmodified opinion.
A standard unmodified opinion is an opinion where financial statements are presented free of any misinterpretation, in all material respects, in accordance with standards known as Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) to provide a high level of assurance.
The standard unmodified opinion comprises of report title, audit report address, introduction paragraph, managements responsibility, auditor's responsibility, opinion paragraph, audit report date and signature and address of certified public accountant firm.
Answer:
The correct answer is A: interest= $21048
Explanation:
An amortization schedule is a complete table of periodic loan payments, showing the amount of principal and the amount of interest that comprise each payment until the loan is paid off at the end of its term. While each periodic payment is the same amount early in the schedule, the majority of each payment is interest; later in the schedule, the majority of each payment covers the loan's principal.
Each payment is the same ($49,148), but the proportions of interest and capital pay changes. The interest proportion decreases from pay to pay.
Loan= 186000
i= 15%
n= 6 years
First pay:
i=186000*0,15=27900
amortization= 49148-27900=21248
Second pay:
i=(186000-21248)*0,15=24712
amort=49148-24712=24436
Third pay:
i=(164752-24436)*0,15=21048
amort=49148-21048=28100
While payments progress, interest decreases and amortization increases.
Answer:
Prospecting
Explanation:
Prospecting selling process -
It is the very first step in the process of sales , according to this step ,
The step involves the detecting the potential of the customers .
The focus of prospecting is to develop the database of the customers and to communicate with them in order to convert the potential customers to the current customers .
Hence from the question ,
Karen Rogers is involved in the prospecting selling process .