The reason the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral is; The C's cancel each other out as desired.
<h3>How to represent Integrals?</h3>
Let us say we want to estimate the definite integral;
I = 
Now, for any C, f(x) + C is an antiderivative of f′(x).
From fundamental theorem of Calculus, we can say that;
where Ф(x) is any antiderivative of f'(x). Thus, Ф(x) = f(x) + C would not work because the C's will cancel each other.
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Answer: v = -5/8
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer to this question would be B, -3. The reason for this is because when you have an equation in slope intercept form, it would be y = mx + b. In this case your b is equal to 0 so you have only y = mx. The variable m represents the slope, which is in this case, equal to -3. Hope this helps. Please rate, leave a thanks, and mark a brainiest answer. (Not necessarily mine). Thanks, it really helps! :D
Answer:
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