From what I understood u write 2 ways of how many cookies hannah has
Maybe
36×2
36+36
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
First confirm that x = 1 is one of the zeros.
f(1) = 2(1)^3 - 14(1)^2 + 38(1) - 26
f(1) = 2 - 14 + 38 - 26
f(1) = -12 + 38 = + 26
f(1) = 26 - 26
f(1) = 0
=========================
next perform a long division
x -1 || 2x^3 - 14x^2 + 38x - 26 || 2x^2 - 12x + 26
2x^3 - 2x^2
===========
-12x^2 + 28x
-12x^2 +12x
==========
26x -26
26x - 26
========
0
Now you can factor 2x^2 - 12x + 26
2(x^2 - 6x + 13)
The discriminate of the quadratic is negative. (36 - 4*1*13) = - 16
So you are going to get a complex result.
x = -(-6) +/- sqrt(-16)
=============
2
x = 3 +/- 2i
f(x) = 2*(x - 1)*(x - 3 + 2i)*(x - 3 - 2i)
The zeros are
1
3 +/- 2i
The explicit formula for arithmetic sequence is:
an=a+(n-1)d
where:
a=first term
d=common difference
given:
a3=22
a(17)=-20
substituting this in our equation we get:
22=a+(3-1)d
22=a+2d
a=22-2d........i
also:
-20=a+(17-1)d
-20=a+16d.....ii
but substituting i in ii we get:
-20=22-2d+16d
-20-22=14d
-42=14d
d=-3
but:
a=22-2d
a=22-2(-3)
a=28
thus the formula will be:
an=28-3(n-1)
thus the first term will be 28
the 2nd term will be:
a2=28-3(2-1)
a2=25
the 3rd term will be:
a3=28-3(3-1)
a3=28-6
a3=22
a4=28-3(4-1)
a4=28-9
a4=15
a5=28-3(5-1)
a5=28-3(4)
a5=28-12
a5=15
Answer:
1. 40%
2. The theoretical probability is 3% greater than the experimental probability.
Step-by-step explanation:
We are informed that a number cube is rolled 20 times and the number 4 is rolled 8 times. The experimental probability of rolling a 4 is;
(the number of times a 4 was rolled)/(total number of rolls)
8/20 = 0.4
0.4*100 = 40%
The experimental probability of obtaining at least one tails, one or more tails, is represented in mathematical notation as;
P(HT or TH or TT)
The above events are mutually exclusive, thus;
P(HT or TH or TT) = P(HT) + P(TH) + P( TT)
= (22+34+16)/(28+22+34+16)
= 0.72 = 72%
On the other hand, the theoretical probability of obtaining at least one tails,
P(HT or TH or TT) = 3/4
= 75%
This is because there is at least one tail in 3 out of 4 possible outcomes.
Therefore, it is true to say that the theoretical probability is 3% greater than the experimental probability.
Answer:
-4 and 4
Step-by-step explanation:
Have a good day.