Answer:
Wednesday is 45 to 18.
Thursday is 55 to 22
Step-by-step explanation:
Wednesday: The original ratio was 5 to 2 And the info tells us that the new ratio is ? to 18. To find the first part we have to find how we got from 2 to 18. 2 * 9 = 18. So to find out the first part you do 5 * 9 = 45. We multiply 5 because Thats the original 1st part. We multiply 9 because that's how we got to 18 in the 2nd part. So the answer is 45 for Wednesday.
Thursday: The original ratio was 5 to 2 And the info tells us that the new ratio is 55 to ?. To find the first part we have to find how we got from 5 to 55. 5 * 11 = 55. So to find out the 2nd part you do 2 * 11 = 55. We multiply 2 because That's the original 2nd part. We multiply 11 because that's how we got to 55 in the 1st part. So the answer is 22 for Thursday.
<u>Answer</u>
√7 × √5
√3 × √2
<u>Explanation</u>
√9*√16 = 3 × 4
= 12
= 12/1 ⇒ It is a rational answer.
√7*√5 = √(7×5)
= √35
= 5.916079783.... ⇒ Irrational
√3*√2 = √(3×2)
= √6
= 2.449489743... ⇒ Irrational
4√2*√2 = 4 × √(2×2)
= 4 × √4
= 4 × 2
= 8
= 8/1 ⇒ It is rational
The expressions that would give irrational answers are: √7*√5 and√3*√2
The first option is the one!
It could be 8 since 8x18= 144 and 144 divided by 2 is 72
To solve this problem, we make use of the Binomial
Probability equation which is mathematically expressed as:
P = [n! / r! (n – r)!] p^r * q^(n – r)
where,
n = the total number of gadgets = 4
r = number of samples = 1 and 2 (since not more than 2)
p = probability of success of getting a defective gadget
q = probability of failure = 1 – p
Calculating for p:
p = 5 / 15 = 0.33
So,
q = 1 – 0.33 = 0.67
Calculating for P when r = 1:
P (r = 1) = [4! / 1! 3!] 0.33^1 * 0.67^3
P (r = 1) = 0.3970
Calculating for P when r = 2:
P (r = 2) = [4! / 2! 2!] 0.33^2 * 0.67^2
P (r = 2) = 0.2933
Therefore the total probability of not getting more than
2 defective gadgets is:
P = 0.3970 + 0.2933
P = 0.6903
Hence there is a 0.6903 chance or 69.03% probability of
not getting more than 2 defective gadgets.
