Answer: It's cool, it means I get free points :)
Answer:
k + 1
v(s) = -------------
S
Step-by-step explanation:
Solve the equation S=k/v(s)+1/v(s) for v(s).
To do this, combine the two terms on the right side, which is easily possible becuse they have the same denominator: v(s):
k + 1
S = ------------
v(s)
Now interchange S and v(s), obtaining:
k + 1
v(s) = -------------
S
Step 1:
Start by setting it up with the divisor 5 on the left side and the dividend 33 on the right side like this:
5 ⟌ 3 3
Step 2:
The divisor (5) goes into the first digit of the dividend (3), 0 time(s). Therefore, put 0 on top:
0
5 ⟌ 3 3
Step 3:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (5 x 0 = 0) and write that answer below the dividend.
0
5 ⟌ 3 3
0
Step 4:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the first digit of the dividend (3 - 0 = 3) and write the answer below.
0
5 ⟌ 3 3
- 0
3
Step 5:
Move down the 2nd digit of the dividend (3) like this:
0
5 ⟌ 3 3
- 0
3 3
Step 6:
The divisor (5) goes into the bottom number (33), 6 time(s). Therefore, put 6 on top:
0 6
5 ⟌ 3 3
- 0
3 3
Step 7:
Multiply the divisor by the result in the previous step (5 x 6 = 30) and write that answer at the bottom:
0 6
5 ⟌ 3 3
- 0
3 3
3 0
Step 8:
Subtract the result in the previous step from the number written above it. (33 - 30 = 3) and write the answer at the bottom.
0 6
5 ⟌ 3 3
- 0
3 3
- 3 0
3
Which equals 6
I would say... None.
Hope this helps ٩(๑❛▽❛๑)۶
