perimeter = 2L+2W
L=2+w
40 = 2L+2W
40= 2(2+w)+2W
40=4+2w+2w
36=4w
w=9
L=9+2=11
2(9) = 18, 2(11) = 22, 22+18 = 40
L=11
W=9
Area = L x w
area = 11x9= 99 square yards
9514 1404 393
Answer:
f⁻¹(x) = √((3 -x)/3)
Step-by-step explanation:
A function gives you a y-value for each value of x.
y = f(x)
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An inverse function tells you the x value that produced a given y-value. It is the solution to the equation ...
x = f(y)
So, we want to find y for ...
x = -3y² +3
x -3 = -3y² . . . . . . . . . . . subtract 3
(x -3)/-3 = y² . . . . . . . . . divide by -3
√((x -3)/-3) = y . . . . . . . take the square root.
The requirement for x > 0 in the original function means y > 0 for the inverse function. That is why we use the positive square root.
This can be simplified a little bit to remove the minus sign from the denominator.
f⁻¹(x) = √((3 -x)/3)
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The graph plots the function and its inverse. They are reflections of each other over the line y=x. (That's one way you can tell you have the correct inverse function.)
<span>The correct answer is option A. i.e. the distance between the two line is consistent when checked with a compass. Because the distance between the parallel lines is always constant and they never inersect with eah other.</span>
There are a total of 5+6+4+3+2=20 M&Ms in the bag. Since there are 6 yellow M&Ms in the bag, there's a 6/20 probability that the first M&M will be yellow. Then, there are 5 more yellow M&Ms and 19 more total M&Ms in the bag, so there is a 5/19 chance the next M&M will be yellow. Finally, there are 4 more yellow M&Ms in the bag and 18 total M&Ms, so there is a 4/18 chance the last M&M will be yellow.
Multiplying these together, we have:
(6*5*4)/(20*19*18)
This simplifies to:
1/57
Therefore, there is a 1/57 probability that all M&Ms will be yellow.
Answer:
d = 8.062258
Step-by-step explanation:
=(−8−(−1))2+(4−0)2‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾√
=(−7)2+(4)2‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾√
=49+16‾‾‾‾‾‾‾√
=6‾√5
=8.062258