Answer:
The probability of Jessica picking 3 consecutive red markers is: (1/6)
The probability of Jessica's first marker being red, but not picking 3 consecutive red markers is:
(3/5)−(1/6)=(13/30)
So i am bit stuck here
what i think is it shouldn't be that complex it should be as simple as chance of Jessica's first marker being red=chance of getting red 1 time i.e P(First marker being red)=(6/10) can any explain me the probability of Jessica's first marker being red=(13/30)?
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A e/f
Step-by-step explanation:

Two negatives always equal one positive
Recall:
Negative + Negative = Positive
Negative + Positive = Negative
Positive + Positive = Positive
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the number of visits to a pool = n
Charges of n visits = Number of visits × Charges per visit
= n × $4
= 4n
Let the membership amount of the pool = $m
So the inequality showing that a membership is less expensive than paying each visit to the pool will be
4n > m
Now we divide the inequality by 4
n > 
Therefore, membership of the pool will be less expensive until number of visits to the pool is one fourth of the membership.
WHAT THE F-
why are the the questions fat paragraphs my dude
Answer: Can you show the full question.
Step-by-step explanation: