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Vaselesa [24]
2 years ago
8

Help Pls :/.........

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sveta_85 [38]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

m<4= 109*

m<3= 71*

m<1= 71*

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Explain why the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral.
Aliun [14]

The reason the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral is; The C's cancel each other out as desired.

<h3>How to represent Integrals?</h3>

Let us say we want to estimate the definite integral;

I = \int\limits^a_b {f'(x)} \, dx

Now, for any C, f(x) + C is an antiderivative of f′(x).

From fundamental theorem of Calculus, we can say that;

I = \int\limits^a_b {f'(x)} \, dx  = \phi(a) - \phi(b)

where Ф(x) is any antiderivative of f'(x). Thus, Ф(x) = f(x) + C would not work because the C's will cancel each other.

Read more about Integrals at; brainly.com/question/22008756

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
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kumpel [21]

Answer:

6/31

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

pqr²+pr-rp²+rq²

Step-by-step explanation:

pq(r²+1)-r(p²+q²)

pqr²+pr-rp²+rq²

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Answer is 150/x see photo for solution

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