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Alexeev081 [22]
3 years ago
14

Solve for 9. 3(q – 7) = 27 Help ASAP

Mathematics
2 answers:
mojhsa [17]3 years ago
6 0

the answer- 16

Step-by-step explanation:

3(q-7)=27

q-7=9

q=9+7

q=16

Kay [80]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

19.3333 (repeating decimal)

Step-by-step explanation:

3(q — 7) =27

3q — 21 = 27

+ 21 +21

3q = 58

3q/3 = 58/3

q = 19.3333 (repeating decimal)

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An urn contains n white balls andm black balls. (m and n are both positive numbers.) (a) If two balls are drawn without replacem
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DISCLAIMER: Please let me rename b and w the number of black and white balls, for the sake of readability. You can switch the variable names at any time and the ideas won't change a bit!

<h2>(a)</h2>

Case 1: both balls are white.

At the beginning we have b+w balls. We want to pick a white one, so we have a probability of \frac{w}{b+w} of picking a white one.

If this happens, we're left with w-1 white balls and still b black balls, for a total of b+w-1 balls. So, now, the probability of picking a white ball is

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\dfrac{w}{b+w}\cdot \dfrac{w-1}{b+w-1}=\dfrac{w(w-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

Case 2: both balls are black

The exact same logic leads to a probability of

\dfrac{b}{b+w}\cdot \dfrac{b-1}{b+w-1}=\dfrac{b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

These two events are mutually exclusive (we either pick two whites or two blacks!), so the total probability of picking two balls of the same colour is

\dfrac{w(w-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}+\dfrac{b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}=\dfrac{w(w-1)+b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

<h2>(b)</h2>

Case 1: both balls are white.

In this case, nothing changes between the two picks. So, you have a probability of \frac{w}{b+w} of picking a white ball with the first pick, and the same probability of picking a white ball with the second pick. Similarly, you have a probability \frac{b}{b+w} of picking a black ball with both picks.

This leads to an overall probability of

\left(\dfrac{w}{b+w}\right)^2+\left(\dfrac{b}{b+w}\right)^2 = \dfrac{w^2+b^2}{(b+w)^2}

Of picking two balls of the same colour.

<h2>(c)</h2>

We want to prove that

\dfrac{w^2+b^2}{(b+w)^2}\geq \dfrac{w(w-1)+b(b-1)}{(b+w)(b+w-1)}

Expading all squares and products, this translates to

\dfrac{w^2+b^2}{b^2+2bw+w^2}\geq \dfrac{w^2+b^2-b-w}{b^2+2bw+w^2-b-w}

As you can see, this inequality comes in the form

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  1. x=b^2+w^2
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Answer:

I think the answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

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