Answer:
0.1, 0.001, 0.3, 0.38, 0.127
Answer:
![P(X>60) = 1-binomcdf(100,0.20,60)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E60%29%20%3D%201-binomcdf%28100%2C0.20%2C60%29)
![P (X \leq 60)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%20%28X%20%5Cleq%2060%29)
Step-by-step explanation:
As we have to find an efficient way for the probability as follows:
![P(X>60)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E60%29)
First of all we will find the remaining part of the probability that is:
![P (X\leq 60 )](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%20%28X%5Cleq%2060%20%29)
As the given probability is inclusive of 60 so the formula used will be:
![P(X\leq 60)=binomcdf(100,0.20,60)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%5Cleq%2060%29%3Dbinomcdf%28100%2C0.20%2C60%29)
Now going back to the actual probability, the formula used will be:
![P(X>60) = 1-binomcdf(100,0.20,60)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E60%29%20%3D%201-binomcdf%28100%2C0.20%2C60%29)
(Because the total probability is always 1)
I hope it will help you!
Answer:
7/12 < 2/3 < 17/24 < 3/4
Step-by-step explanation:
least to greatest
Answer:
the missing number is 6
Step-by-step explanation:
To find the mean, add up all the numbers and divide by the number of numbers
( 2+3+x+5) /4 = 4
Combine like terms
(10+x)/4 =4
Multiply each side by 4
10+x = 16
Subtract 10 from each side
x = 6
80 times could Kaitlyn expect to pull out a blue chip.
<u>Step-by-step explanation</u>:
- The total number of chips in the bag = 7 white+5 red+ 8 blue = 20 chips.
- Probability (blue chip) = number of blue chips / total chips
P(blue) = 8/20
She does this 200 times.
P(blue) for 200 times = (8/20)
200 = 80.