64 ft of rope weighs 20 pounds 28 ft of rope weighs x pounds

2. Round 459 to the nearest hundred. O 460 450 500 400

KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

The answer is 500

Step-by-step explanation:

When you round to the hundred, you look at the 10s place. If the 10s place is 5,6,7,8, or 9, you round the hundred up. In this case, it is 459 so you would round up to 500. Have a nice day!!!

5 0

2 years ago

Can some explain how to do this?

zepelin [54]

Answer:

Exact Area = 210.25pi - 210
Approximate Area = 450.185

The units for the area are in square inches or in^2. The approximate value shown above is when using pi = 3.14

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Explanation:

Use the pythagorean theorem to find the length of the hypotenuse

a = 20
b = 21
c = unknown

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

20^2 + 21^2 = c^2

400 + 441 = c^2

c^2 = 841

c = sqrt(841)

c = 29

The hypotenuse is 29 inches long. This is the diameter of the circle. Half of that is the radius at r = d/2 = 29/2 = 14.5 inches.

The area of the circle is...

A = pi*r^2

A = pi*(14.5)^2

A = pi*210.25

A = 210.25pi

Which is exact in terms of pi

We'll subtract off the triangular region as this isn't shaded in. The area of the triangle is base*height/2 = 20*21/2 = 420/2 = 210 square inches.

So the shaded region is therefore 210.25pi - 210 square inches

This approximates to 210.25*3.14 - 210 = 450.185 when using the approximation pi = 3.14; use more decimal digits of pi to get a more accurate value.

4 0

3 years ago

Need answer ASAP thanks!

barxatty [35]

Answer:

assuming its an annual interest

Okay so 6 percent interest, the bank is paying you.
So with this it’s 6 percent of 1500 and add it to 1500.

You can always find 6 percent of 1500 and then add but here’s a short cut.
Your principle (beginning) balance is 1500.
That’s already 100 percent since thats yoru original value.
You then get added 6 percent interest.
We are jsut adding 6 percent to 100 percent so 106 percent.
Now we solve normally and you’d get the answer faster.

106 percent is 106/100 or 1 3/5 or 1.06

now we multiply
1500 * 1.06 = 1590

Your final balance would be 1590 after the 6 percent interest is added.

5 0

2 years ago

Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}$

And replacing we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]$

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99$

And now we can solve for $\lambda$

$0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

$ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)$

$ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)$

$\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0$

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

$x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$