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Leto [7]
3 years ago
12

On january 1, year 1, pearl corporation owned 90% of the outstanding stock of seso corporation. both companies were domestic cor

porations. pursuant to a plan of liquidation adopted by seso in march year 1, seso distributed all of its property in september year 1 in complete redemption of all its stock, when seso's accumulated earnings equaled $18,000. seso had never been insolvent. pursuant to the liquidation, seso transferred to pearl a parcel of land with a basis of $10,000 and a fair market value of $40,000. how much gain must seso recognize in year 1 on the transfer of this land to pearl?
Business
1 answer:
sergey [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$30,000

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Accumulated earnings = $18,000

Basis for land = $10,000

Fair market value = $40,000

Now,

Since, seso is under liquidation all the assets will be sold and stocks to be settled.

Thus,

Gain seso must recognize in year 1 on the transfer of this land to pearl

= Fair market value of the land - Basis for land

=  $40,000 - $10,000

= $30,000

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Difference between disposition and sentencing
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Disposition means: a person's inherent qualities of mind and character.

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3 years ago
Cooper’s Brakes, Inc., enters into a contract with Byron’s Service to fix Cooper’s hydraulic equipment. Byron delays the repair
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

The answer is: Compensatory damages

Explanation:

Compensatory damages refers to money awarded to a plaintiff in a civil case (in this case Cooper's Brakes) to compensate for incurred losses (or injuries, etc. in other cases). The plaintiff has to prove that the losses he suffered were caused by negligence or unlawful conduct of the defendant (Byron's Service). The plaintiff has to be able to quantify (in monetary terms) the damages it suffered.

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3 years ago
Exercise 6-18 Break-Even and Target Profit Analysis; Margin of Safety; CM Ratio [LO6-1, LO6-3, LO6-5, LO6-6, LO6-7]Menlo Company
bonufazy [111]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Sales= $640,000 ($40)

Variable expenses= 448,000 (28)

Contribution margin= 192,000 ($12)

Fixed expenses= (145,200)

Net operating income=$46,800

1) To calculate the break-even point in units and dollars, we need to use the following formulas:

Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit

Break-even point in units= 145,200/(40-28)

Break-even point in units= 12,100 units

Break-even point (dollars)= fixed costs/ contribution margin ratio

Break-even point (dollars)= 145,200/ (12/40)

Break-even point (dollars)= $484,000

<u>2) The break-even point is the number of units to sell to reach a net profit of cero. Therefore, the contribution margin must be equal to the fixed costs.</u>

Contribution margin= 145,200

3) profit= $75,600

Break-even point in units= (fixed costs + desired profit)/ contribution margin per unit

Break-even point in units= 220,800/12

Break-even point in units= 18,400 units

Sales= 18,400*40= 736,000

Total variable costs= 18,400*28= (515,200)

Contribution margin= 220,800

Fixed costs= 145,200

Net profit= 75,600

4) The margin of safety:

Margin of safety= (current sales level - break-even point)

Margin of safety= 640,000 - 484,000= $156,000

Margin of safety ratio= (current sales level - break-even point)/current sales level

Margin of safety ratio= 156,000/640,000

Margin of safety ratio= 0.244= 24.4%

5) Contribution margin ratio= 12/40= 0.3

Net increase= 96,000*0.3= $28,800

5 0
3 years ago
Why are foreign mnes like ups seeking to invest in india?
jarptica [38.1K]

The foreign MNC's like UPS seeking to invest in India because of the country's market potential, skilled workforce and political stability.

The foreign MNCs are investing in India because of cheaper production costs. India is a critical growth market for logistics giant United Parcels Service (UPS) as it aims to provide the predictable and reliable service to B2B domestic market through its new venture called MOVIN.

India's market potential, skilled workforce and political stability are the three key reasons that make India the favored destination for foreign investment. When compared to other countries India is a relatively cheaper place to conduct business.

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4 0
1 year ago
Two annuities have equal present values and an applicable discount rate of 7.25 percent. One annuity pays $2,500 on the first da
nignag [31]

Answer:

$2681.30 approx.

Explanation:

The first annuity is case of annuity due

For the first annuity, $2500 + 2500 × cumulative present value factor at 7.25% for 14 years

= $2500 + 8.6158 × 2500

= $24040 approx

The second annuity is the case of deferred annuity wherein payments are made at the end of the year.

Payment amount of second annuity = Present Value of first annuity ÷ cumulative present value annuity factor at 7.25% for 15 years

This will be equal to 24,040/8.9658 = $2681.30 approx.

5 0
3 years ago
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