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mixas84 [53]
3 years ago
12

What are the basic need-to-know things about wound care nursing?

Business
1 answer:
Oksanka [162]3 years ago
8 0
You need to put in love
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Explain how a Target price for farm crops is an example of a price floor.​
12345 [234]

Answer: A target price for farm crops is an example of price floor because it’s fixed ahead of harvests with the interest of farmers in mind.

Explanation: A quick definition of both concepts would be of help. A price floor is usually fixed by government legislation and it ensures that the price of a commodity or service does not fall below a certain minimum. In the case of farm crops, a floor price makes sure that the farmers are guaranteed a level of profit in case there is poor harvest for any reason whatsoever. The price floor must be fixed above the equilibrium price for this to be effective.

A target price is an expectation of the future price of commodities or services, and hence prices are fixed ahead of the harvest in the case of farm crops. This is so because as explained earlier, future conditions might change and become unfavorable, therefore making the current market price unprofitable for farmers. If for example, a sack of potatoes currently sells for $30, the government may fix the price floor ahead of the harvest season at $45 per sack. This implies that after harvesting farmers can still sell at $30. However if the harvest turns out to be bad perhaps due to natural disasters, pests or fungal attacks, etc, then the farmers can go ahead and sell at $45 and possibly higher. No farmer is allowed to sell below $45 (since that is the ‘floor’). That way, farmers would still have some profit guaranteed and would be encouraged to remain in the farming business.

8 0
3 years ago
Who knows bts? just wondering
Likurg_2 [28]

Not the place to be asking but at this point they are pretty well known.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You buy a stock for which you expect to receive an annual dividend of $2.10 for the fifteen years that you plan on holding it. a
kap26 [50]
<span>You are given an annual dividend of $2.10 for the fifteen years that you plan on holding it. Also, after 15 years, you are given to sell the stock for $32.25. You are asked to find the present value of a share for this company if you want a 10% return. You have to mind that the future stock for 15 years is $32.25. You are not only going to mind the present value of the annuity at $2.10 but also the $32.25.

With the interest of r = 10% and number of years of n = 15, we get
PVIFA = 7.6061.

For annuity we have,
$2.10 * 7.60608 = $15.973

For $32.35 with r = 10% and n = 15
PVIF = 0.239392

Thus for the present value of selling price,
$32.25 * 0.239392 = $7.720

Thus the present value of the share
P = $15.973 + $7.720
P = $23.693
</span>
6 0
3 years ago
You are choosing between these four investments and you want to be​ 95% certain that you do not lose more than 8.00 % on your in
MakcuM [25]

Answer:

option B

Explanation:

In other to know how return fluctuation can be predicted with for instance, x%, predictability, one has to look at the normal distribution curve of return (average returns) to standard deviation of those returns. (check the attached file for additional details).

Hence, to be 95% sure that investment losses are less than 8% one needs to look at 95% of all returns which infact Mean return plos or minus 20. If the lower bound of this interval is less than 8% then the investment needs to be selected

check attached file for additional details

8 0
3 years ago
Marmol Corporation uses the allowance method for bad debts. During year 1, Marmol charged $30,000 to bad debt expense, and wrote
4vir4ik [10]

Answer: Option (d)

Explanation:

Under this case the write off will be as follow:

                                                                      Debit         Credit

Allowance for doubtful accounts                25,200  

Accounts receivables                                                     25,200

Here, in this case the Allowance for the doubtful accounts and Accounts receivables are further decreased as the outcome of the transaction made. Thus, there will be no further effect on working capital. Therefore the $30,000 that is bad debt would then be stated as the credit to allowance account. This will then decrease the working capital by $30,000.

4 0
3 years ago
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