a. Standard labor-hours is 7920 hours.
b. Standard labor cost allowed is $42,768.
c. The labor spending variance is $1588(U).
d. The labor rate variance is $1706 and the labor efficiency variance $3294(U).
e. The variable overhead rate is $5971(U) and efficiency variances for the month $5580(U).
<u>Explanation:</u>
a)Standars hours(SH) allowed to make 19800 jogging mates
=SH per unit
19800
=(24/60)*19800
=7920 hours
24/60 has been taken to convert minutes into hours.
b)Standard Labor Cost (SC) of 19800 jogging mates

=$42,768
c)Labour Spending Variance

=$1588(U)
d)Labor Rate Variance

=$1706
Actual Hours(AH) * Actual Rate per hour(AR)= Actual Cost(AC)


Labor Efficiency Variance

=$3294(U)
e) Variable overhead rate variance = Actual hours worked (Standard overhead rate - Actual overhead rate)
= 8530 (4.5 - 5.20)
= $5971(U)
Actual overhead rate = $44,356 / 8530 = 5.20
Variable overhead efficiency variance = Standard overhead rate (Standard hours - Actual hours)
= 4.50 (7290 - 8530)
= $5580(U).
<span>The pay structure that would be used in this model is salary plus commission. Commission is a percentage of total sales so the more sales are made by an employee the more they make. The salary also gives them a regular amount of pay when things don't go well for the month, but the commission pushes them to continue to do their best.</span>
Answer:
Degree of operating leverage = 7.8
Explanation:
given data
sales = 2,080 units
per unit price = $50
Variable expenses = 25%
total fixed expenses = $68,000
solution
we get here Degree of operating leverage that is express as
Degree of operating leverage = Sales - variable cost ÷ (sales - variable cost - fixed cost) .......................1
here
Sales = 2080 × 50 = 104000
and
Variable cost = 104000 × 25% = 26000
so now put value in equation 1 we get
Degree of operating leverage =
Degree of operating leverage = 7.8
Answer:
a) 9.00 %
b) 7.80 %
c) yes the weight of the debt increases here is more risk in the investment as the debt payment are mandatory and failing to do so result in bankruptcy while the stock can wait to receive dividends if the income statement are good enough
d) 9.00 %
e) The increase in debt may lñead to an increase in return of the stockholders if they consider the stock riskier than before and will raise their return until the WACC equalize at the initial point beforethe trade-off occurs
Explanation:
a)
Ke 0.12
Equity weight 0.5
Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06
Debt Weight = 0.5
WACC 9.00000%
c)
Ke 0.12
Equity weight 0.3
Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06
Debt Weight 0.7
WACC 7.80000%
d)
<em>Ke 0.16</em>
Equity weight 0.3
Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06
Debt Weight 0.7
WACC 9.00000%
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below;
The net profit margin is
= Net income ÷ sales revenue
= $184,000 ÷ $574,000
= 32%
The asset turnover is
= Sales revenue ÷ average of assets
= $574,000 ÷ ($2,142,000 + $1,998,000) ÷ 2
= $574,000 ÷ $2,070,000
= 0.28 times
c. The return on assets is
= Net income ÷ average of assets
= $184,000 ÷ $2,070,000
= 0.089
= 8.89%