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Alik [6]
3 years ago
5

As a preferred stockholder, you are entitled to numerous preferences and privileges over common stockholders. If you are a prefe

rred stockholder of a company that has fallen on economic hardship and is likely to go bankrupt, which preference or privilege of preferred stock is going to be most useful to you
Business
1 answer:
Rufina [12.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

asset distribution preference

Explanation:

In such a situation the preference or privilege that would be best for you is known as asset distribution preference or liquidation preference. This is a clause that dictates that the payout in case of a corporate liquidation (such as when they are about to go bankrupt) must first go to the preferred stockholders in order for them to get their money back first. Therefore, since you are a preferred stockholder this would be the biggest privilege for you, allowing you to recover your money quickly and move on to something else.

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Erie Company manufactures a mobile fitness device called the Jogging Mate. The company uses standards to control its costs. The
Tom [10]

a. Standard labor-hours is 7920 hours.

b. Standard labor cost allowed is $42,768.

c. The labor spending variance is $1588(U).

d.  The labor rate variance is $1706 and the labor efficiency variance $3294(U).

e.  The variable overhead rate is $5971(U) and efficiency variances for the month $5580(U).

<u>Explanation:</u>

a)Standars hours(SH) allowed to make 19800 jogging mates

=SH per unit \times 19800

=(24/60)*19800

=7920 hours

24/60 has been taken to convert minutes into hours.  

b)Standard Labor Cost (SC) of 19800 jogging mates

=19800 \times SC per unit=19800 \times $2.16\\=$42,768

=$42,768

c)Labour Spending Variance

=Standard Cost - Actual Cost(AC)=$42,768 - $44,356=$1588(U)

=$1588(U)

d)Labor Rate Variance  

=(SR per hour-AR per hour)\timesAH=(5.4-5.2)*8530=$1706(F)

=$1706

Actual Hours(AH) * Actual Rate per hour(AR)= Actual Cost(AC)

8530 \times AR = $44,356

AR = \frac{44356}{8530}\\ \\AR = 5.2

Labor Efficiency Variance

=(SH-AH) \times SR\\=(7920-8530)*$5.4=$3294(U)

=$3294(U)

e) Variable overhead rate variance = Actual hours worked  (Standard overhead rate - Actual overhead rate)

= 8530  (4.5 - 5.20)

= $5971(U)

Actual overhead rate = $44,356 / 8530 = 5.20

Variable overhead efficiency variance = Standard overhead rate   (Standard hours - Actual hours)

= 4.50  (7290 - 8530)

= $5580(U).

8 0
3 years ago
Which structure would you be most likely to choose if your company wanted to give its sales people a predictable paycheck and al
tangare [24]
<span>The pay structure that would be used in this model is salary plus commission. Commission is a percentage of total sales so the more sales are made by an employee the more they make. The salary also gives them a regular amount of pay when things don't go well for the month, but the commission pushes them to continue to do their best.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Bristo Corporation has sales of 2,080 units at $50 per unit. Variable expenses are 25% of the selling price. If total fixed expe
Mumz [18]

Answer:

Degree of operating leverage = 7.8

Explanation:

given data

sales = 2,080 units

per unit price  = $50

Variable expenses = 25%

total fixed expenses = $68,000

solution

we get here Degree of operating leverage that is express as

Degree of operating leverage = Sales - variable cost ÷ (sales - variable cost - fixed cost)   .......................1

here

Sales = 2080 × 50  = 104000

and

Variable cost = 104000  × 25%  = 26000

so now put value in equation 1 we get

Degree of operating leverage = \frac{104000-26000}{104000-26000-68000}  

Degree of operating leverage = 7.8

3 0
3 years ago
American​ Exploration, Inc., a natural gas​ producer, is trying to decide whether to revise its target capital structure. Curren
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

a) 9.00 %

b) 7.80 %

c) yes the weight of the debt increases here is more risk in the investment as the debt payment are mandatory and failing to do so result in bankruptcy while the stock can wait to receive dividends if the income statement are good enough

d) 9.00  %

e) The increase in debt may lñead to an increase in return of the stockholders if they consider the stock riskier than before and will raise their return until the WACC equalize at the initial point beforethe trade-off occurs

Explanation:

a)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.5

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight = 0.5

WACC = 0.12(0.5) + 0.06(0.5)

WACC 9.00000%

c)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.12(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 7.80000%

d)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

<em>Ke 0.16</em>

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.16(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 9.00000%

3 0
3 years ago
Problem 2 (9 points) The following information was taken from the income statement and balance sheet of The Perryman Company for
Len [333]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below;

The net profit margin is

= Net income ÷ sales revenue

= $184,000 ÷ $574,000

= 32%

The asset turnover is

= Sales revenue ÷ average of assets

= $574,000 ÷ ($2,142,000 + $1,998,000)  ÷ 2

= $574,000 ÷ $2,070,000

= 0.28 times

c. The return on assets is

= Net income ÷ average of assets

= $184,000 ÷ $2,070,000

= 0.089

= 8.89%

3 0
3 years ago
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