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almond37 [142]
3 years ago
11

American​ Exploration, Inc., a natural gas​ producer, is trying to decide whether to revise its target capital structure. Curren

tly it targets a 50​-50 mix of debt and​ equity, but it is considering a target capital structure with 70​% debt. American Exploration currently has 6​% ​after-tax cost of debt and a 12​% cost of common stock. The company does not have any preferred stock outstanding.
a. What is American​ Exploration's current​ WACC?
b. Assuming that its cost of debt and equity remain​ unchanged, what will be American​ Exploration's WACC under the revised target capital​ structure?
c. Do you think shareholders are affected by the increase in debt to 70​%? If​ so, how are they​ affected? Are the common stock claims riskier​ now?
d. Suppose that in response to the increase in​ debt, American​ Exploration's shareholders increase their required return so that cost of common equity is 16​%. What will its new WACC be in this​ case?
e. What does your answer in part d suggest about the tradeoff between financing with debt versus​ equity?
Business
1 answer:
Marat540 [252]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a) 9.00 %

b) 7.80 %

c) yes the weight of the debt increases here is more risk in the investment as the debt payment are mandatory and failing to do so result in bankruptcy while the stock can wait to receive dividends if the income statement are good enough

d) 9.00  %

e) The increase in debt may lñead to an increase in return of the stockholders if they consider the stock riskier than before and will raise their return until the WACC equalize at the initial point beforethe trade-off occurs

Explanation:

a)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.5

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight = 0.5

WACC = 0.12(0.5) + 0.06(0.5)

WACC 9.00000%

c)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

Ke 0.12

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.12(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 7.80000%

d)

WACC = K_e(\frac{E}{E+D}) + K_d(1-t)(\frac{D}{E+D})

<em>Ke 0.16</em>

Equity weight 0.3

Kd(1-t) = after tax cost of debt = 0.06

Debt Weight 0.7

WACC = 0.16(0.3) + 0.06(0.7)

WACC 9.00000%

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IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

The correct option is C) place utility

Explanation:

Place utility is the utility which is created for a product by making that product available to near by locations of the customers so that they can easily get access to those products. Same strategy is being applied in the question by E-gadgets , who are making their stores available to such locations , where their customers ( upper middle class and wealthy neighborhoods) can get access to the products easily( less than 15 minutes in the given case).

5 0
3 years ago
Swansea Finishing produces and sells a decorative pillow for $100.00 per unit. In the first month of operation, 2,000 units were
Cloud [144]

Answer:

$41,400

Explanation:

Swansea Finishing

Variable cost of goods sold = Variable manufacturing costs × Units Sold

Variable manufacturing costs $23.00

Units sold $1,800

Hence:

$23.00 × 1,800 units

= $41,400

Therefore the cost of goods sold using variable costing is $41,400

6 0
3 years ago
On November 1, 2021, Aviation Training Corp. borrows $46,000 cash from Community Savings and Loan. Aviation Training signs a thr
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

<u>Record the issuance of note. </u>

November 1, 2021

Dr.   Cash                   46000

Cr.   Note Payable     46000

<u>Record the adjustment for interest.</u>

December 31, 2021

Dr.   Interest Expense    460

Cr.   Interest Payable     460

(46000*6%)*3/12 = 460

<u>Record the repayment of the note at maturity</u>

Dr.   Note Payable     46000

Dr.   Interest Payable     460

Dr.   Interest Expense    230

Cr.   Cash                    46,690

(46000*6%)*1/12 = 230

Explanation:

* At the year end the interest expense is accrued and recorded as interest payable.

4 0
3 years ago
Explain why to maximize profits a firm needs to produce an output at a level where marginal revenue
Orlov [11]

Answer:

Rest of question:

... equals marginal cost.

Firms will maximize profits at the point where marginal revenue equals marginal cost because producing after this point means that no profits will be made.

As long as the Marginal revenue exceeds marginal cost, there will be profits made because the company is making more than it is spending so they should keep producing. When it gets to a point in production where the marginal revenue equals marginal cost, the company should not produce further than that.

This is because, as earlier mentioned, any further production would result in the marginal cost being larger than the marginal revenue which means that a loss will be made. The company should therefore stop at the point where MR = MC so as not to let MC get larger than MR so that no losses will be made.

8 0
2 years ago
Consider a bond that costs $1,000 and pays an $80 interest payment each year.
Anna007 [38]

Answer:

The interest rate for this bond is 8% per annum.

Explanation:

Given that,

a bond that costs $1,000 and pays an $80 interest each year.

To find the rate of interest, we use the following formula is

I=Prt

Here P = principal= $1,000

I=interest= $80

t=time= 1 year

∴80 = 1000×r×1

\Rightarrow r=\frac{80}{1000}

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⇒r= 8%

The yield for this bond is 8% per annum.

7 0
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