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kicyunya [14]
2 years ago
15

A triangle has angle measurements of 27 degrees, 56 degrees and 97 degrees. What kind of triangle is it?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ghella [55]2 years ago
7 0
The answer is obtuse which is c
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Can anyone help me????
Mila [183]

Answer:

16, 8, 28, 84, 10, 16, and 96

Step-by-step explanation:

Bc its a parallelogram, the opposite sides are equal. so HI is equal to KJ which is 16. For GH its parallel to GJ so its 8. For the measure of KIH, we know that the measure of IKJ is 28, so the opposite side, it would be 28 for KIH. For the measure angle of KJI, the same applies, the opposite is KHI which is 84. KH is the opposite of JI which is 10. For HJ, you have half the line which we know from GJ is 8, so the other half would also be 8 making HJ 16 in total. For the measure angle of JIH, the opposite is JKH, we know that 28 makes up a small part of that. The angle KHI also distributes into this, 28+84=112. Each triangles angles should equal up to 180 so 180-112= 68 so the other side of 28 is 68. Now the 84 angle isn't completely distributed into the angle but we needed that to figure out the 68 part. So now that we have 28 and 68 we add that together and get 96.

Hope this helped :) sorry if it got a little confusing

4 0
2 years ago
1)<br><br>1. Simplify<br>2/2+1<br>2/2-1​
Maksim231197 [3]

Answer:

2, 0

Step-by-step explanation:

2/2+1=1+1=2

2/2-1=1-1=0

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
g Suppose that p=0.5 and you ran the experiment above (consisting of 200 coin flips) a total of 1000 times. What is the expected
madam [21]

Answer:

The expected number of experiment is 198

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution

Given that:

We need to carry out a test

where,

H0 : p =0.5

and

H1 : p ≠ 0.5

n = the number of flip coin which is = 200

x = this is the number of  heads declared = 106

So,

xₙ = x/n = 106/200 = 0.53 = p

Thus,

D₂ =√n (xₙ - 0.5)/√0.5 * (1-0.5)

=√200 * (0.53 - 0.5)/ √0.5 * (1-0.5)

= 0.848528137

D₂ = 0.8485

Now,

p ( z> D₂ ) = p ( z > 0.8485)

=0.198072

Thus,

By applying R,

1 - pnorm (0.8485, 0,1)

That is (1- pnorm (D₂, 0, 1)

Hence,

p ( z> D₂ )≈ 0.198072

So,

We find The expected number of experiment such that the estimator √n (xₙ - 0.5)/√0.5 * (1-0.5)i s larger than the value D₂ when the total is 1000 times or  attained in the first experiment Thus

1000 * p ( z> D₂ )

= 1000 * 0.198072

=198.072

=198

Note: Kindly find an attached copy of the complete question below

5 0
3 years ago
Plzzzzzzzz help me, im very confused​
Alex_Xolod [135]

WHAT IS YOUR QUESTION

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6 0
2 years ago
Please help me please
raketka [301]
The Answer Is 14 feet
5 0
2 years ago
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