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ella [17]
3 years ago
13

Barnett Corporation uses the weighted-average method in its process costing system. The

Business
1 answer:
Nimfa-mama [501]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. 18,000

b. $5.10

Explanation:

<u>Calculation of the total equivalent units of production for materials</u>

Units of Closing Work In Process  (6,000× 100%) =  6,000

Units completed and transferred (12,000× 100%) = 12,000

Total                                                                          = 18,000

<u>Calculation of the total equivalent units of production for conversion</u>

Units of Closing Work In Process  (6,000 × 50%) =  3,000

Units completed and transferred (12,000× 100%) = 12,000

Total                                                                          = 15,000

<u>Calculation of Total Cost of Materials</u>

Work in process                      $13,800

Costs added during May       $42,000

Total                                        $55,800

<u>Calculation of Total Cost of Conversion</u>

Work in process                       $ 3,740

Costs added during May       $26,260

Total                                        $30,000

<u>Calculation of total cost per equivalent unit for May</u>

Materials ($55,800/18,000)       = $3.10

Conversion ( $30,000/15,000)  = $2.00

Total                                             = $5.10

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Tatham Corporation produces a single product. The standard costs for one unit of its Clan product are as​ follows:
Alla [95]

Answer:

$3,500 Unfavorable

Explanation:

The computation of variable overhead efficiency variance for Clan for November Year 2 is shown below:-

Variable overhead efficiency variance

=  (Standard labor hours - actual labor hours) × (Standard variable overhead rate)

= (3,500 × 2 - 7,500) × $7

= (7,000 - 7,500) × $7

= $3,500 Unfavorable

Therefore for computing the Variable overhead efficiency variance we simply applied the above formula.

3 0
2 years ago
Suppose that a company needs new equipment, and that the machinery in question earns the company revenue at a continuous rate of
julia-pushkina [17]

Answer:

a-The present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.

b-The total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.

Explanation:

a-

Let the function of the revenue earned is given as

S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0The present value is given as [tex]PV=\int\limits^a_b {S(t)e^{-rt}} \, dt

Here

  • a and b are the limits of integral which are 0 and 1 respectively
  • r is the rate of interest which is 5% or 0.05
  • S(t) is the function of value which is S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0So the equation becomes[tex]PV=\int\limits^0_1 {S(t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t+38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=8113.7805+18764.4669+34207.6751\\PV=61085.9225

    So the present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.

    b-

    The time in which the machine pays for itself is given as

    PV=\int\limits^0_1 {S(t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^t_1 {S(t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=61085.9225+\int\limits^{t}_{1}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt

    The present value is set equal to the value of machine which is given as

    $160,000 so the equation becomes:

    PV=61085.9225+\int\limits^{t}_{0}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\160000=61085.9225+\int\limits^{t}_{0}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\\int\limits^{t}_{0}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt=160000-61085.9225\\\int\limits^{t}_{1}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt=98914.07\\\\t=-\dfrac{\ln \left(0.93034\right)}{0.05}\\t=1.44496

    So the total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.

6 0
3 years ago
If the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1:
FrozenT [24]

Answer:

b. small percentage changes in the price will lead to much larger percentage changes in the quantity demanded.

Explanation:

Price elasticity of demand is a measure of how responsive is quantity demanded to change in price. Its formula is given by:

E_{D} = \frac{dQ}{Q}{\frac{P}{dP} =

= % Change in Quantity Demanded / % Change in Price

So when absolute value E_{D}  is greater than 1, a x percentage change in price will lead to larger than x percentage change in quantity demanded.

<u>Note</u>: Whether the percentage change in quantity demanded will be just a little or very much larger than percentage change in price will depend on how much E_{D} is larger than 1. But b is the still the best answer among the options.

7 0
3 years ago
Let’s say you’re looking to increase the visibility of your company blog. What, in addition to SEO tactics, could you do to make
zhuklara [117]

Answer:

Addition of backlinks to your Blog

Explanation:

Addition of backlinks to your blog post is one way you can make it easy for people to organically find your previous published pages

Backlinks are links created and added to a webpage that links the website or webpage to another webpage or blog post. this links makes it easier for people navigating through a company's blog to find previously posted articles without having to search them all over again on the menu page.

3 0
3 years ago
In the money creation process, the simple money multiplier assumes that banks hold no excess reserves. What is the consequence o
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

If banks hold excess reserves, then the money multiplier will be smaller.

Explanation:

It is easier to understand using an example:

required reserve rate = 5%

money multiplier = 1 / 5% = 20

if $100 are injected in to the economy and they are deposited in the banking system, the money supply will increase by $100 x 20 = $2,000. But this calculation only works if banks lend 100% of the loanable funds, but if instead banks only lend $90, instead of $95 ($100 x 95%), then the money multiplier will be 1 / 10% = 10. In this case, the money supply will only increase by half

7 0
3 years ago
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